Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

15

Match the rates with their equivalent unit rates. Match the rates with their equivalent unit rates. arrowRight arrowRight arrowR

ight arrowRight arrowRight arrowRight arrowRight arrowRight arrowRight arrowRight

2 answers:

anyanavicka [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

$\frac{47}{2} \to 6$

$\frac{60}{12} \to 5$

$\frac{40}{10} \to 4$

$\frac{56}{8} \to 7$

$\frac{64}{8} \to 8$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

See attachment

Required

Complete the blanks

To do this, we simply carry out the division operation.

So, we have:

$\frac{47}{2} \to 6$

$\frac{60}{12} \to 5$

$\frac{40}{10} \to 4$

$\frac{56}{8} \to 7$

$\frac{64}{8} \to 8$

Brrunno [24]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

show a screenshot next time.

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in

Roll a number cube. If the number cube comes up odd, you win the same number of points as the number on the cube. If the number

laila [671]

Answer:

–0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Expected value is found by multiplying the probabilities of each roll by the amount won or lost with each roll.

The odd rolls are 1, 3 and 5. The probability of rolling a 1 is 1/6, and the value is 1; this gives us 1/6(1) = 1/6.

The probability of rolling a 3 is 1/6, and the value is 3; this gives us 1/6(3) = 3/6.

The probability of rolling a 5 is 1/6, and the value is 5; this gives us 1/6(5) = 5/6.

Rolling any even number gives us the same value. The probability of rolling an odd number is 3/6, and the value is -4; this gives us 3/6(-4) = -12/6.

Together we have

1/6+3/6+5/6-12/6 = 4/6+5/6-12/6 = 9/6-12/6 = -3/6 = -0.5

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

WHAT IS THE HCF OF 21 28 42

gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

7.

Step-by-step explanation:

21 = 3 * 7

28 = 2 * 2 * 7

42 = 2 * 3 * 7

Collecting common factors:

t is common to all 3 sets of factors so

HCF = 7.

8 0

3 years ago

6n-3>-18<br> Solve the inequality

Tamiku [17]

Answer:

<h3>n>-5/2</h3>

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you have to isolate it on one side of the equation. Remember that, isolate n on one side of the equation.

6n-3>-18

6n-3+3>-18+3 (Add 3 from both sides.)

-18+3 (Solve.)

-18+3=-15

6n>-15

6n/6>-15/6 (Divide by 6 from both sides.)

-15/6 (Solve.)

-15/6=-5/2

n>-5/2

In conclusion, the correct answer is n>-5/2.

3 0

3 years ago

A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr

ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And $\pi$ is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so $\pi = 0.30$

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so $n = 10$

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211$

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is $P(X > 1)$

We have that:

$P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1$

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)$

We also have that:

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

$P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282$

So

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493$

Finally

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507$

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0

3 years ago

Plz Help ASAP! I will mark Brainliest!

Wewaii [24]

If you have a ruler I can how you a faster why you do this

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers