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vichka [17]
3 years ago
14

(8x- 1) (11X - 25) (15y - 48) ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Leona [35]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1320x^2y−4224x^2−3165xy+10128x+375y−1200

Step-by-step explanation:

(8x−1)(11x−25)(15y−48)

=((8x−1)(11x−25))(15y+−48)

=((8x−1)(11x−25))(15y)+((8x−1)(11x−25))(−48)

=1320x2y−3165xy+375y−4224x2+10128x−1200

=1320x^2y−4224x^2−3165xy+10128x+375y−1200

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PLZ HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Vsevolod [243]

Answer:

Isn't that just soild liquid and gas atoms?

The image is showing how the atoms change depending on which state of matter it is, so if it is a soild the atoms would be really compacted as it moves slower, if it's a liquid then it's more looser than a soild, but more compacted than a gas, and a gas is just moving a lot and has a lot more space.

^^ That would be the answer if you on the states of matter or something like that unit.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
1. There are two differnt maps of Ohio. The scale on the first map is 1 cm to 10 km. The distance from Cleveland to Cincinnati i
xeze [42]

Answer:

1.  0.8 cm

2.  1.6 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

1.

The scale for 2nd map is 1 cm to 50 km, that means "1 cm on map" is "50 km in real life".

We already know distance from Cleveland to Cincinnati is 40 km, which is less than 50, so we know the distance on map would be less than 1 cm.

So we set up ratio and figure out (let x be distance on map from Cleveland to Cincinnati):

\frac{1}{50}=\frac{x}{40}\\50x=40\\x=\frac{40}{50}\\x=0.8

Hene, 0.8 centimeters would be the distance in 2nd map

2.

A scale of 1:50 means 1 cm equal 50 cm

So, 0.8m would be

0.8 * 100 = 80 cm

Hence, 80 cm would be represented by 80/50 on the map, that is:

\frac{80}{50}=1.6

That is 1.6 centimeters

7 0
3 years ago
A code consists of a single digit number from 0-9 and a letter from the alphabet. What is the probability that the code is 3Z? W
Nana76 [90]
The probability of it being 3Z is 1/27
4 0
3 years ago
Which is the graph of f(x) = 4[1/2]x ?
bagirrra123 [75]

Step-by-step explanation:

answer is in picture see

hope it helpful

6 0
3 years ago
HELP FAST PLS
Rom4ik [11]

Answer:

The converse of the Pythagorean theorem states that if the square of one side of a triangle is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides, then the triangle is a right triangle.

8 0
3 years ago
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