1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
borishaifa [10]
3 years ago
9

If BE = 2x + 2, BD = 5× - 3, and AE = 4× - 6, what are the values of x and AC?​

Mathematics
1 answer:
hichkok12 [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

x = 7

AC = 44

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the diagram attached

According to the parallelogram,

BD = 2BE

5x-3 = 2(2x+2)

5x-3 = 4x+4

5x-4x = 4+3

x = 7

Hence the value of  x is 7

Also AC = 2AE

AC = 2(4x-6)

AC = 8x - 12

AC = 8(7) - 12

AC=  56-12

AC = 44

Hence the measure of AC is 44

You might be interested in
Rena spent 6 days reading her book completing the same fraction of the book each day if she had a total of 8/9 of her book after
Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

The fraction of the book that Rena read every day is \frac{4}{27}

Step-by-step explanation:

Rena spent 6 days reading her book completing the same fraction of the book every day and you want to know the fraction of the book she read each day. Knowing that Rena had a total of 8/9 of her book read after 6 days, then you simply divide the total amount of the book read during those days by 6, the number of days:  

\frac{8}{9}÷6

To divide a fraction by a whole number, you must convert the whole number into a fraction, finding the reciprocal of that fraction, and multiply it by the first fraction. That is, you must find the reciprocal of the number that is after the division symbol; and then you multiply the first number (the one before the division symbol) by the reciprocal of the second number (the one after the division symbol). Remember that to find the reciprocal of a number, you simply have to change the numerator and denominator of the number.

Since 6 can be considered to be a fraction equal to \frac{6}{1}, by inverting the number, then you get \frac{1}{6}

Then:

\frac{8}{9}÷6= \frac{8}{9} *\frac{1}{6}

Now you multiply the numerators and denominators of the fraction to get the new numerator and denominator of the final solution.

\frac{8}{9}÷6= \frac{8}{9} *\frac{1}{6}=\frac{8*1}{9*6} =\frac{8}{54}

Finally, simplifying the fraction:

\frac{8}{9}÷6= \frac{8}{9} *\frac{1}{6}=\frac{8*1}{9*6} =\frac{8}{54}=\frac{4}{27}

So:

\frac{8}{9}÷6= \frac{4}{27}

<u><em>The fraction of the book that Rena read every day is </em></u>\frac{4}{27}<u><em></em></u>

3 0
3 years ago
A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel = 0.1353

Step-by-step explanation:

GIven that:

A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two.

Let consider β to be the average value for defecting

So;

β = 2

Assuming Y to be the random variable which signifies the anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll.

Thus, y follows a poisson distribution as number of defect is infinite with the average value of β = 2

i.e

Y \sim P( \beta = 2)

the probability mass function can be represented as follows:

\mathtt{P(y) = \dfrac{e^{- \beta} \ \beta^ \ y}{y!}}

where;

y =  0,1,2,3 ...

Hence,  the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel

y = 0

\mathtt{P(y =0) = \dfrac{e^{- 2} \ 2^ \ 0}{0!}}

\mathtt{P(y =0) = \dfrac{0.1353  \times 1}{1}}

P(y =0) = 0.1353

4 0
3 years ago
Need help ASAP DUE SOON AND PLEASE SHOW WORk!!!!
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer:

87.92 inches cubed or 87.92 in.^3

Step-by-step explanation:

The base of a cylinder is a circle, so we need to calculate the area of the circle first. The equation for the area of a circle is:

area (a) = pi * r^2 =3.14*2*2 =12.56sq.inches

again,

volume of cylinder = area of the base * the height

= 12.56 * 7

= 87.92 inches cubed or 87.92 in.^3

5 0
3 years ago
The players height is standard deviation above the mean?
Alona [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Z score is the number of standard devations above the mean.

For example if z=1, the data value is 1 st. dev. above the mean.

So, z=1.95, so the player's heigh is 1.95 st. dev. above the mean.

4 0
3 years ago
I need help but please don’t leave a link
Dima020 [189]
What is the question more information
8 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • The figure shows a carpeted room. How many square feet of the room are carpeted?
    10·2 answers
  • -4 + (-1) on a number line
    11·2 answers
  • Thelma spent 1/6 of her weekly allowance on dog toys.  1/4 on a dog collar and 1/3 on dog food.  What fraction of her weekly all
    9·2 answers
  • The product of 3, and a number increased by 8​, is -48. 3x+8=-48
    5·1 answer
  • How many times can 15 go into 19
    11·2 answers
  • Help me please:)))<br> (20 points)<br> Will Mark BRAINLIEST !
    6·2 answers
  • Complete the table and then find the function rule. Remember to put in the y=mx+b form
    6·1 answer
  • Multiplication between exponentiation number 648
    12·1 answer
  • Anyone i need help asap im literally crying
    14·1 answer
  • PLZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZ HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST
    13·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!