Consider the equation.
4(pr + 1) = 64
The value of x in terms of p is
The value of x when p is -5 is
Answer:
45.45%
Explanation:
The total selling price was $200,000 (paid on the date of the sale) + $900,000 (note received) = $1,100,000
Juan's cost of he land = $700,000 (basis) - $100,000 (mortgage) = $600,000
Juan's profit = $1,100,000 - $600,000
Juan's gross profit percentage = $500,000 / $1,100,000 = 45.45%
Answer: a. $1,000.0m
Explanation:
Even though the company's enterprise value has no growth, the equity investment of the sponsor will rise from $500.0m when purchased to $1,000.0m when the target for the value of the enterprise is sold for $1500.0m.
The debt was $1000m at year 0 while the remaining $500m was for equity. It should be noted that at the fifth year, equity will be $1,000.0m while the debt will be $500m.
The arbitrage profit implied by these prices is $5.24.
<h3>Arbitrage profit</h3>
Given:
Future contract= 1645
Sport gold price = 1592
Risk-free rate (rf) = .03
Hence:
Arbitrage profit=1645-[1592(1+1.03)¹]
Arbitrage profit=1645- 1639.76
Arbitrage profit=1645 =$5.24
Therefore the arbitrage profit implied by these prices is $5.24.
Learn more about arbitrage profit here:brainly.com/question/15394730
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Answer:
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