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Kryger [21]
3 years ago
14

Which number is divisible by 2 and 4? 14 18 26 32

Mathematics
1 answer:
n200080 [17]3 years ago
5 0
It’s 32 because the rest of the numbers can’t do it so it’s 32
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It would be C because if you plug all the x-values in to the equation, it would get the same y values, which would satisfy the equation.
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Can someone help me with this i am confused
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Plot each point on a graph , then count how many you need to go up and then over in this case it is 8 over 1 then calculate the y int so y= 8x -25
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Help with pre algerbra equations PLZ
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For the first one a = 2.5. For the second one m = 4. For the third one m = -4
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2 years ago
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You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
3 years ago
Haley saves $2 out of every $5 that she makes babysitting. If Haley saved $10, how much did she make babysitting?
Kitty [74]

Answer:

25$

Step-by-step explanation:

5=2

10=4

15=6

20=8

25=10

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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