The correct option is C
<u>Explanation:</u>
Non-association complaint techniques fluctuate generally in their structure from casual open entryway arrangements to expound peer survey and assertion based methodology. The selection of these systems is driven by a scope of elements including association substation, suit shirking, and as a component of human asset techniques concentrated on advancing high responsibility from representatives.
Non-association complaint methods will, in general, be utilized less much of the time that their association partners, yet use levels fluctuate depending on the structure of the methodology with those joining non-administrative leaders displaying higher utilization levels.
Therefore, Option c is correct - Do not frequently have an employee's grievance decided by a third-party neutral.
OPTIONS:
A) naturally like work.
B) will work toward goals they are committed to.
C) have little ambition.
D) have the potential to accomplish the organization's goals.
E) seek out and accept responsibility
Answer:
C) have little ambition.
Explanation:
The theory X consists of a set of assumptions that that a manager or leader has regarding their subordinates. This theory is one of the theories of management that was developed by a social Psychologist known as Douglas McGregor.
According to Theory X, as proposed by McGregor, it is assumed that people are naturally lazy, and unwilling to work. It also assumes that they have little ambition, and would try as much as possible to avoid work. This theory assumes also that motivation that is monetary is what majorly drives people to work.
<em>Sally, treating employees as if they have little ambition indicates she uses Theory X assumptions when dealing with employees.</em>
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Had to look for the options and here is my answer. Given that the bank possesses a liability that is worth $150 billion and its net worth is only $20 billion, then this would mean that the bank must have ASSETS OF $170 BILLION. Hope this answers your question.
Answer:
the question is false
Explanation:
you can't sell stock for ownership
Answer:
The price of the bond is $659.64.
Explanation:
C = coupon payment = $62.00 (Par Value * Coupon Rate)
n = number of years = 6
i = market rate, or required yield = 15 = 0.15 = 0.15 /2 = 0.075
k = number of coupon payments in 1 year = 2
P = value at maturity, or par value = $1000
BOND PRICE= C/k [ 1 - ( 1 / ( 1 + i )^nk ) / i ] + [ P / ( 1 + i )^nk )]
BOND PRICE= 62/2 [ 1 - ( 1 / ( 1 + 0.075 )^6x2 ) / 0.075 ] + [ $1,000 / ( 1 + 0.075 )^6x2 )]
BOND PRICE= 31 [ 1 - ( 1 / ( 1.075 )^12 ) / 0.075 ] + [ $1,000 / ( 1.075 )^12 )]
BOND PRICE= 31 [ 1 - ( 1 / ( 1.075 )^12 ) / 0.075 ] + [ $1,000 / ( 1.075 )^12 )]
BOND PRICE= $239.79 + $419.85 = $659.64