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2 years ago

Give 2 or 3 reasons on why cheaper delivery is better

Business

2 answers:

Alina [70]2 years ago

8 0

Answer: Because is cheap

2 Because is better and you save money

Explanation:

Lera25 [3.4K]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

It's 100% cheap, You don't have to worry about driving all the time, and It's better!

Explanation:

You might be interested in

At a price of $0.50, how many more or fewer cups of lemonade do caroline and emily sell when the temperature is 60 degrees than

djverab [1.8K]

At a price of $0.50, the amount of cups of lemonade that Caroline and Emily sell when the temperature is 60 degrees than when the temperature is 80 degrees is <u>-</u><u>1</u><u>5</u>.

50 - 80 = -30

= -30 * 0.5

= - 15

<h3>How does one arrive at the answer?</h3>

This is an instance of demand curve shift which refers to key changes in the balance of supply and demand that alter the quantity demanded at the same price. Hence, the shift in the quantity demanded will affect the amount of cups of lemonade that is sold.

Sometimes questions that involve graphs will ask you to consider the effect of a changing factor or factors. Problem statement: the line labeled D1 in the graph to the right shows the number of cups of lemonade that Caroline and Emily can sell at their lemonade stand at various prices.

Caroline and Emily have noticed that they sell more lemonade when it's hotter. Click anywhere on the graph to open a window with a control labeled Temperature. If you use the slider to change the temperature, the line will shift. Change the temperature from 80 degrees to 50 degrees.

At a price of $0.50, the amount of cups of lemonade that Caroline and Emily sell when the temperature is 60 degrees than when the temperature is 80 degrees is<u> -15</u>.

Therefore, the correct answer is as given above

learn more about demand curve: brainly.com/question/16790743

#SPJ1

3 0

1 year ago

Each machine must be run by one of 19 cross-trained workers who are each available 35 hours per week. The plant has 10 type 1 ma

Mrac [35]

Answer:

The Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: $P=90X+120Y+150Z$

Constraints:

$2X+2Y+Z\leq 400$

$3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240$

$4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320$

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10$

$\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6$

$\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8$

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19$

Explanation:

As the question is not complete, the complete question is found online and is attached herewith.

Let the number of product 1 to be produced is X, that of product 2 is Y and product 3 is Z

so the maximizing function is the profit function which is given as

$P=90X+120Y+150Z$

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 10 type 1 machines so the total number of machine 1 hours are 40*10=400 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1, product 2 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1 and product 3 uses 1 hour of machine 1 so

$2X+2Y+Z\leq 400$

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 6 type 2 machines so the total number of machine 2 hours are 40*6=240 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 3 machine hours of machine 2, product 2 uses 4 machine hours of machine 2 and product 3 uses 6 hour of machine 2 so

$3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240$

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 8 type 3 machines so the total number of machine 3 hours are 40*8=320 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 4 machine hours of machine 3, product 2 uses 6 machine hours of machine 3 and product 3 uses 5 hour of machine 3 so

$4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320$

Now as the machine 1 is used as 2X+2Y+Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10$

Now as the machine 2 is used as 3X+4Y+6Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

$\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6$

Now as the machine 3 is used as 4X+6Y+5Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

$\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8$

Now the workers are available for 35 hours so the worker available at the machine 1 is given as

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}$

That of machine 2 is given as

$\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}$

That of machine 3 is given as

$\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}$

As the total number of workers is 19 so the constraint is given as

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19$

So the Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: $P=90X+120Y+150Z$

Constraints:

$2X+2Y+Z\leq 400$

$3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240$

$4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320$

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10$

$\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6$

$\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8$

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19$

4 0

3 years ago

Cullumber Company provides the following information about its defined benefit pension plan for the year 2017. Service cost $ 90

Llana [10]

Answer:

$102,080

Explanation:

Given that,

Service cost = $90,500

Interest rate = 9 %

Expected return on plan assets = $62,800

Prior service cost amortization = $10,300

Projected benefit obligation at January 1, 2017 = $712,900

Pension expense for the year 2017:

= Service cost + Interest cost - Expected return on plan assets + Prior service cost amortization

= $90,500 + ($712,900 × 9%) - $62,800 + $10,300

= $90,500 + $64,080 - $62,800 + $10,300

= $102,080

8 0

2 years ago

Derek just received a bonus and wishes to set aside a portion of it in order to save for a 10-year reunion cruise that his old c

kotegsom [21]

Answer:

$3,168

Explanation:

We will receive $4000 in future (after 4 years time) which means all we want to know is the amount that we Derek must deposit today.

This present value of the $4000 payment received after 4 years from today can be calculated using the following formula:

Present value = Future Value / (1 + r)^n

Here

Future Value is $4000

r is 6%

n is 4 years

So by putting values, we have:

Present value = $4000 / (1 + 6%)^4 Years

Present value = $3,168

3 0

3 years ago

The probability that Mary will win a game is 0.03, so the probability that she will not win is 0.97. If Mary wins, she will be g

valkas [14]

Answer:

Expected value of X = -11.09

Explanation:

Expected profit:

= Probability of winning × Amount she wins

= 0.03 × $180

= 5.4

Expected loss:

= Probability of loosing × Amount she paid

= 0.97 × $17

= 16.49

Let X be amount of money Mary wins or loses.

E(X) = Expected profit - Expected loss

= 5.4 - 16.49

= -11.09

Expected value of X = -11.09

That is expected value of loss of $11.09

4 0

2 years ago