50% or 32/64 because 32 is half of 64
Answer:
D. Infinitely many solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
The equation simplifies to ...
2h -16 -h = h -16
h -16 = h -16 . . . . . . a "tautology", true for all values of h.
There are infinitely many solutions.
Answer:
a) CI = ( 5,1 ; 5,7 )
b) SE = 0,1
Step-by-step explanation:
a) Sample random n = 100
Mean = μ = 5,4
Standard deviation s = 1,3
CI = 99 % α = 1 % α = 0,01 α/2 = 0,005
z(c) for 0,005 is from z-table z(c) = 2,575
z(c) = ( X - μ ) /s/√n CI = μ ± z(c) * s/√n
CI = 5,4 ± 2,575* 1,3/10
CI = 5,4 ± 0,334
CI = ( 5,1 ; 5,7 )
b) SE = Standard deviation / √n
SE = 1,3 /10 SE = 0,1
We can support that with 99 % of probability our random variable will be in the CI.
Answer:
4
Step-by-step explanation:
The diagram shows that the one triangle can be divided into two equal right triangles. Because of this, you can use the Pythagorean Theorem to solve this problem. a and b are the two sides of the angles, and c is the hypotenuse.
The given lengths are 5 as the hypotenuse and 3 as one length. (You have 3 as a given length because the two triangles have a length of 6 on one side. 6/2 = 3)
a² + b² = c²
a² = c² - b²
a² = 5² - 3²
a² = 25² - 9²
a² = 16
a = 4
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Answers and explanations in attachment. Problem 29 was cut off a bit. I assumed the question was what percent of the total are cubs.
