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Nata [24]
2 years ago
13

Please help!!! It's a quiz

Mathematics
1 answer:
xxMikexx [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer: 3,2.50)

Step-by-step explanation:

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The following graph describes function 1, and the equation below it describes function 2. Determine which function has a greater
Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

A.) Function 1 has the larger maximum at (4, 1).

Step-by-step explanation:

No step-by-step explanation, nobody pays attention to them anyway.

3 0
3 years ago
Given that f(x) = 2x + 5 and g(x) = x − 7, solve for f(g(x)) when x = −3
dusya [7]

Answer:

-15

Step-by-step explanation:

start from the inside and go out.

So first plug in -3 into g(x)

g(-3) = -3 - 7 = -10

then plug in -10 into f(x)

f(-10) = 2(-10) + 5 = -15

so f(g(x)) = -15

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
You want to have $25,000 for a down payment on a house 6 years from now. if you can earn 6.5 percent, compounded annually, on yo
STatiana [176]
Use compound interest formula:
Future value, F 
25000=P(1+i)^n
where
P=present value to be found
i=annual interest rate = 0.065
n=number of years = 6
so
25000=P(1.065)^6
=>
P=(25000/1.065^6)=$17133.353
6 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP !!!
olga55 [171]

Answer:

B: x=-2

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because x=-2 is where the parabola is split into two equal halves.

5 0
3 years ago
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