One final question, what would be the proper way to write this? I thought it was the last one answer but I’m not sure
1 answer:
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Answer:
a) It can be used because np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5.
Step-by-step explanation:
Binomial distribution and approximation to the normal:
The binomial distribution has two parameters:
n, which is the number of trials.
p, which is the probability of a success on a single trial.
If np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5, the normal approximation to the binomial can appropriately be used.
In this question:
So, lets verify the conditions:
np = 201*0.45 = 90.45 > 5
n(1-p) = 201*(1-0.45) = 201*0.55 = 110.55 > 5
Since both np and n(1-p) are greater than 5, the approximation can be used.