There are two blue marbles so you have a 2/8 probability of drawing a blue marble on each draw since the marble is replaced after the first draw. 2/8 can be simplified to be 1/4 and then converted to be 0.25 per draw. 0.25 plus 0.25 equals 0.5. Since we are dealing with percentages multiply 0.5 x 100 which equals 50. Now take 50 and divided by the total number of marbles in the bag which is 8. 50 divided by 8 equals 6.25. So it would be about 6%.
Answer:
a+2b-d=1, 3, 5, 7
Step-by-step explanation:
(ax^2+bx+3)(x+d)
ax^3+bx^2+3x+adx^2+bdx+3d
ax^3+bx^2+adx^2+3x+bdx+3d=x^3+6x^2+11x+12
ax^3=x^3, a=1
bx^2+adx^2=6x^2
x^2(b+ad)=6x^2
b+ad=6
b+(1)d=6
b+d=6
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3x+bdx=11x
x(3+bd)=11x
3+bd=11
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b=6-d
3+(6-d)d=11
3+6d-d^2=11
3-11+6d-d^2=0
-8+6d-d^2=0
d^2-6d+8=0
factor out,
(d-4)(d-2)=0
zero property,
d-4=0, d-2=0
d=0+4=4,
d=0+2=2
b=6-4=2,
b=6-2=4.
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a+2b-d=1+2(2)-2=1+4-2=5-2=3
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a+2(4)-4=1+8-4=9-4=5
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a+2(2)-4=1+4-4=5-4=1
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a+2(4)-2=1+8-2=9-2=7
<span>$21 times .06 = $1.26 in taxes and $21 times .15 = $3.15 in tip so you add $21+ 1.26 + 3.15 = $25.41
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