When the Federal Reserve sells treasury bonds to a bank, the money supply is decreased. Since there are smaller available funds for the bank to loan (they have tied up some cash by buying the bonds), the interest rate the bank charges (all other things EQUAL!) will increase.
Basically, what has happened is that the bank has lent money to the federal government, rather than to other lenders. So if it has no other sources of lendable funds AND borrowers don't have other banks to go to that are charging the current rate, the same number of borrowers competing for a smaller amount of borrowable funds will lead to a higher price, (interest rate) for those loans.
Answer:
$13,529= Direct material
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Job 590 has a total cost of $29,200. It has been charged with manufacturing overhead costs of $7200. The rate is 85% of direct labor.
Total cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead
29,200= DM + (7,200/0.85) + 7,200
29,200 - 7,200 - 8471= dm
$13,529= DM
Answer:
The correct answer is c. Calibrate risks
.
Explanation:
Risk management is the process of planning, organization, management and control of the human and material resources of an organization, in order to minimize or exploit the risks and uncertainties of the organization.
Uncertainties represent risks and opportunities with the potential to destroy or create value. The company's risk management allows managers to effectively address uncertainties as well as the risks and opportunities associated with them, in order to improve the ability to generate value.
Value is maximized when the organization establishes strategies and objectives to achieve the ideal balance between growth objectives, return on investment and the risks associated with them, and to explore its resources effectively and efficiently in achieving the organization's objectives. .
Answer:
PV= $37,204.70
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Interest rate= 6% compounded semiannually= 0.03
Future value= $50,000
Number of periods= 5*2= 10
To calculate the initial investment to reach the objective, we need to use the following formula:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 50,000/(1.03^10)
PV= $37,204.70
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Step-by-step explanation:
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.