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Setler79 [48]
3 years ago
9

In a drill, Mark gives Fred a 45 meter head start. After t seconds, Fred is a distance 5t +45 from the starting line andMark is

a distance of 6t from the starting line. How far ahead of Mark is Fred after t seconds?
Mathematics
1 answer:
FromTheMoon [43]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: After t seconds, Fred is far away from Mark by (45-t).

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: Mark gives Fred a 45meter head start.

After t seconds, the distance of  Fred from the starting point = 5t+45

The distance of Mark from the starting point = 6t

Now, Distance between Fred and Mark after t seconds = Location of Fred - Location of Mark

= (5t+45)-6t

= 5t+45-6t

= 45-t

Hence, After t seconds, Fred is far away from Mark by (45-t).

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Which algebraic expression is a trinomial?
Goryan [66]

Answer: A trinomial consisting of three terms.

Step-by-step explanation: An example of trinomial is 6x squared + 3x + 5.

7 0
3 years ago
A famous Premier-league footballer was quoted on Match of the Day to have a goal-scoring statistic of 0.36
stepan [7]

Answer:

13a.\  The \ probability\ of \ scoring\ a\  goal\  in\  a\  game\  is\  0.36\\\\b. 3 \ games

14.

a. \ \£90\\b. \ 26 \ weeks\\c. \ \£4,860

15. This is not possible since p(yellow)=0.10 which is less than the stated 0.35

Step-by-step explanation:

13 a. -A goal-scoring statistic is the probability of a player scoring one goal in any given game played.

-A 0.36 goal scoring statistic means that the player has a 0.36 or 36% chance of scoring a goal in any game that he is involved in.

b. To determine the number of games it takes to score a whole goal, we divide the probability by 1 goal:

Games=\frac{1 \ game}{p(goal)}\\\\=\frac{1}{0.36}\\\\=2.778\approx 3

Hence, it takes approximately 3 games to score a full goal.

14.-The cost of a GCSE retake is £600 and attracts a 15% deposit

#The 15% equivalent in actual pounds is calculated by multiplying the percentage by the total cost as:

C_g=0.15\times 600\\\\=\£90

Hence, the 15%  deposit amount equals £90

b.#The student pays the balance in a £20 per week scheme,the total number of weeks is calculated as:

t=\frac{Balance}{Rate}\\\\=\frac{600-90}{20}\\\\=\frac{510}{20}\\\\=25.5\approx 26

Hence, it takes 26 weeks to clear the balance.

c. Given that 10% is the equivalent of £450

-We divide this amount by 10% to get the 100% equivalent

#We know that 10%=0.10

100\%=\frac{540}{0.1}\\\\=\£5400

#Alternatively, 100% divided by 10% is 10. Multiply this value by £540:

=540\times 10\\\\=\£5400

We subtract the discount amount for the per-discount price:

Cost=Total -discount\\\\=5400-540\\\\=\£4860

Hence, it will cost £4,860 without the discount.

15. Since we are not given the proportion of colors in the bag, we assume that all the 10 beads have different colors.

-As such, the sample space is 10 and each color has an equal chance of being picked:

P(Each \ Color)=P(Yellow)=\frac{1}{10}\\\\\therefore P(Yellow)

Hence, this is impossible since 0.10<0.35

7 0
3 years ago
A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a
Ronch [10]

Answer:

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 12

She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.3

Compute the probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

2 or less sold, which is:

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138

P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{11} = 0.0712

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678

Then

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0138 + 0.0712 + 0.1678 = 0.2528

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

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3 years ago
I need help on this one guys :(
Sophie [7]

Answer:

the last one

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
A pair of angles which share a common side and vertex is called
zheka24 [161]

Answer: Adjacent Angles

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3 years ago
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