Answer:
$21
Step-by-step explanation:
40% of 15 is 6, and 15 + 6 is 21
The effective annual interest rate is:
i = (1 + 0.064/12)^12 - 1 = 0.066
In year 1: the interest is $613.80 (multiple $9300 by 0.066)
In year 2: the interest is $654.31 (add interest from year 1 to $9300 and multiply by 0.066)
In year 3: the interest is $656.98 (do the same as year 2)
In year 4: the interest is $657.16
The total interest is: $2582.25
The present worth of this amount is:
P = 2582.23 / (1 + 0.066)^4 = $1999.72
The answer is $1999.72.
The diameter can be obtained by the formula A = pi*r^2
First, multiply 0.50 * 100 to obtain the area of the ball, then simplify and solve for the radius. Doubling the radius would yield the diameter. This is shown below:
Area of the ball = 0.50 * 100 = 50 in^2
<span>A = pi*r^2
</span>50 = (3.14)*r^2
r = 3.99 = approx. 4
diameter = 2r
Diameter = 8 inches.
Among the choices, the correct answer is C. 8.0 in.
The money multiplier is 1/ 0.12
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
See attachment for MNPQ and RSTU
Required
Find x and y
To solve this question, we make use of equivalent ratios of corresponding side lengths.
The ratio of corresponding sides are:
From the attachment, we have:
To solve for x, we equate and
Express as fraction
Make x the subject
To solve for y, we equate and
Express as fraction
Make y the subject
