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arlik [135]
2 years ago
7

The following triangles are similar by which short cut?

Mathematics
2 answers:
daser333 [38]2 years ago
5 0
The answer would be A
Roman55 [17]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: It's A.

You can see in the figure that:

BG=GD

<BGI=<OGD

GI=GO

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What's 16.6666667 to the nearest tenth 
sasho [114]
16.7 is the answer rounded to the nearest tenth.
3 0
3 years ago
Assume that we have two events, and , that are mutually exclusive. Assume further that we know and . If an amount is zero, enter
sweet [91]

Answer:

Explained below.

Step-by-step explanation:

The complete question is:

Assume that we have two events, A and B, that are mutually exclusive. Assume further that we know P(A) = 0.30 and P(B) =0.40.

What is P(A and B)?

What is P(A | B)?

Is P(A | B) equal to P(A)?

Are events A and B dependent or independent?

A student in statistics argues that the concepts of mutually exclusive events and independent events are really the same, and that if events are mutually exclusive they must be independent. Is this statement accurate?

What general conclusion would you make about mutually exclusive and independent events given the results of this problem?

Solution:

The probability of the two events <em>A</em> and <em>B</em> are:

P(A) = 0.30 and P(B) =0.40

(a)

Compute the value of P (A ∩ B) as follows:

P(A\cap B)=0

This is because mutually exclusive events are those events that cannot occur together.

(b)

Compute the value of P (A | B) as follows:

P(A|B)=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{0}{0.40}=0

Thus, the value of P (A | B) is 0.

(c)

No, P (A | B) is not equal to the P (A).

(d)

As mentioned in part (a), mutually exclusive events are those events which cannot occur together.

That is, P(A\cap B)=0.

Events A and B are independent  if the chance of their concurrent happening is equivalent to the multiplication of their distinct probabilities.

That is, P(A\cap B)=P(A)\times P(B).

The concepts of mutually exclusive events and independent events are not the same.

(e)

As the it is provided that A and B are mutually exclusive events, we know that P(A\cap B)=0.

Now compute the value of P(A)\times P(B) as follows:

               P(A)\times P(B)=0.30\times 0.40=0.12\neq 0

Thus, the events A and B are not independent.

Thus, if two events are mutually exclusive events they cannot be independent.

4 0
3 years ago
Ten experts rated a newly developed chocolate chip cookie on a scale of 1 to 50. Their ratings were: 34, 35, 41, 28, 26, 29, 32,
miskamm [114]

The mean deviation of the ratings is  4.12

<em><u>Explanation</u></em>

The ratings of the ten experts are:  34, 35, 41, 28, 26, 29, 32, 36, 38 and 40

So, the mean of all ratings =\frac{34+35+41+28+26+29+32+36+38+40}{10}= \frac{339}{10}=33.9

<u>The formula for Mean deviation</u> = \sum \frac{|x_{i}- \mu|}{N} , where x_{i} is the given data from i=1 to i=10 , \mu is the mean of the data and N is the total number of data. So.....

|x_{1}-\mu |= |34-33.9|=0.1\\ |x_{2}-\mu|=|35-33.9|=1.1\\ |x_{3}-\mu |=|41-33.9|=7.1\\ |x_{4}-\mu |=|28-33.9|=5.9\\ |x_{5}-\mu |=|26-33.9|=7.9\\ |x_{6}-\mu |=|29-33.9|=4.9\\|x_{7}-\mu |=|32-33.9|=1.9\\ |x_{8}-\mu |=|36-33.9|=2.1\\ |x_{9}-\mu |=|38-33.9|=4.1\\ |x_{10}-\mu |=|40-33.9|=6.1

So, the Mean deviation =\sum \frac{|x_{i}-\mu |}{N}=\frac{0.1+1.1+7.1+5.9+7.9+4.9+1.9+2.1+4.1+6.1}{10} = \frac{41.2}{10}=4.12

4 0
3 years ago
Hunter installed tiles on a floor with a length of 12 feet and a width of 9 feet in
salantis [7]
I don’t know if you meant 7 hours or 7 1/2 hours, but if it was in 7 hours, the answer would be around 15 square feet. If it was 7 1/2 hours, it would be 14 square feet.
3 0
3 years ago
Find the least common multiple of each pair of polynomials.<br> 5 y² - 80 and y + 4
kobusy [5.1K]

The least common multiple of each pair of the polynomial (5y² - 80) and

(y + 4) is equal to 5(y-4)(y+4).

As given in the question,

Given pair of the polynomial is (5y² - 80) and (y + 4)

Simplify the given polynomial using (a² -b²) = (a-b)(a +b)

(5y² - 80) = 5(y² -16)

⇒(5y² - 80) = 5(y² - 4²)

⇒(5y² - 80) = 5(y -4)(y + 4)

And  (y + 4) = (1) (y+4)

Least common multiple = 5(y-4)(y+ 4)

Therefore, the least common multiple of the given pair of the polynomial is 5(y -4)(y+ 4).

Learn more about least common multiple here

brainly.com/question/11533141

#SPJ4

6 0
1 year ago
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