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3 years ago

HELP!!!! GEOMETRY PLS HELP

Mathematics

1 answer:

-Dominant- [34]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

180 is whole mark me as brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

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What is the coefficient in the term k?<br> A.0<br> B.1<br> C.2<br> D.k

DaniilM [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

because the is an invisible 1 in an letter

5 0

3 years ago

Find the value of b that will make the equation sin 62°= cos B true when 0°

KiRa [710]

Hello from MrBillDoesMath!

Answer:

b = 28 degrees

Discussion:

In general,

sin (90 - @) = cos(@)

Set 90 [email protected] = 62 => @ = 28 so

sin (90-28) = sin(62) = cos(28) => b = 28

Thank you,

MrB

4 0

3 years ago

The Jackson family drove 496 miles in 8 hours. Which is the unit rate in fraction form?

vagabundo [1.1K]

You find the unit rate by dividing 496 by 8
so
$\frac{496}{8} = \frac{62}{1}$

Hope I helped

3 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How many hundreds are all in the number of 44,813 ??

Iteru [2.4K]

Answer: Well, I thought about it and I was like, Well 813 right? Then I realized the question and was like: Nvm lol (Hope you find the answer!)

3 0

3 years ago

Could the inverse of a non-function be a function? Explain or give an example.

Kitty [74]

Answer:

The inverse of a non-function mapping is not necessarily a function.

For example, the inverse of the non-function mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ is the same as itself (and thus isn't a function, either.)

Step-by-step explanation:

A mapping is a set of pairs of the form $(a,\, b)$ . The first entry of each pair is the value of the input. The second entry of the pair would be the value of the output.

A mapping is a function if and only if for each possible input value $x$ , at most one of the distinct pairs includes $x\!$ as the value of first entry.

For example, the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0) \rbrace$ is a function. However, the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace$ isn't a function since more than one of the distinct pairs in this mapping include $1$ as the value of the first entry.

The inverse of a mapping is obtained by interchanging the two entries of each of the pairs. For example, the inverse of the mapping $\lbrace (a_{1},\, b_{1}),\, (a_{2},\, b_{2})\rbrace$ is the mapping $\lbrace (b_{1},\, a_{1}),\, (b_{2},\, a_{2})\rbrace$ .

Consider mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ . This mapping isn't a function since the input value $0$ is the first entry of more than one of the pairs.

Invert $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ as follows:

$(0,\, 0)$ becomes $(0,\, 0)$ .
$(0,\, 1)$ becomes $(1,\, 0)$ .
$(1,\, 0)$ becomes $(0,\, 1)$ .
$(1,\, 1)$ becomes $(1,\, 1)$ .

In other words, the inverse of the mapping $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ would be $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ , which is the same as the original mapping. (Mappings are sets. There is no order between entries within a mapping.)

Thus, $\lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!$ is an example of a non-function mapping that is still not a function.

More generally, the inverse of non-trivial ellipses (a class of continuous non-function $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ mappings, including circles) are also non-function mappings.

3 0

2 years ago