Answer:
Dividend paid = (5%× 10,000 × $10) = $5000.
Explanation:
<em>Preference shares entitles the holders to participate in a fixed dividend out of the profit made by the company. The divide is always a fixed percentage of the nominal value of the preference shares</em>
It can be cumulative and non-accumulate.
Cumulative <em>simply implies that should the company misses the payment of dividend in a particular year such unpaid dividend would be carried carried forward and paid in arrears in the following year/</em>
Non-cumulative i<em>s the exact opposite of the case . Here, unpaid dividends are not paid in arrears in fact such are forfeited for life.</em>
Dividend in Year 1
Dividend paid in Year 1 was $ 4000 but ought to be $5,000 (5%× 10,000 × $10). An arrear of $1000
Dividend in Year 2
Dividend paid = (5%× 10,000 × $10) = $5000.
Note that the unpaid dividend of $1,000 in year 1 is lost forever
Answer:
future savings
Explanation:
because at the end of the 5year saving she will be able get more interest on her saving
Answer:
A.The economy as a whole continues to grow between each business cycle.
Explanation:
The steady growth line best supports the conclusion about the economy
represented in the graph is that "The economy as a whole continues to grow between each business cycle."
The above statement is true because the production output of the firm continues to rise with time. As time goes on in the business cycle of the firm, the firm continues to grow, which is evident in the increase in the level of production.
Answer:
The correct answer is d) neither the long-run Phillips curve nor the Classical dichotomy.
Explanation:
The answer that best suits the situation described is the Phillips curve in the short term but not in the long term.
The Phillips curve starts from the principle that the amount of money circulating (commonly called "money supply") has real effects on the economy in the short term. In this way, an increase in the money supply would have a beneficial effect on aggregate demand, as citizens will spend more when their nominal wages are increased (known as “monetary illusion”) and a more favorable framework for investment and investment will be created. that the prospects of rising prices will improve the expectations of corporate profits. The improvement in aggregate demand would result in greater economic growth, and this in turn in the creation of new jobs. This is how an inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment is established, expressed graphically by a downward curve.
Answer:
Real estates are the least liquid of them all
Explanation:
Real estates take considerable time to sell and cash out, making them not to be considered as liquid assets.
The money market refers to trading in very short-term debt investments.The money market deals in short-term loans, generally for a period of less than or equal to 365 days. Money markets are considered as highly liquid assets.
Treasury bills are short-term sovereign debt securities maturing in one year or less . The treasury bill market is highly liquid as investors can quickly convert bills to cash through a broker or bank.
This makes real estates the correct answer as the least liquid asset.
