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erma4kov [3.2K]
3 years ago
8

My you pls answer this questions

Mathematics
1 answer:
IRINA_888 [86]3 years ago
7 0

Step-by-step explanation:

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*Easy* & will mark brainest!! Does the image above mean no solution or infinite solutions? please let me know!
jenyasd209 [6]

Answer:

No solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

That image is of the symbol of the empty set. The solution set is empty, which means there is no solution.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Function to inverse function f(x) =2x/3-17
ZanzabumX [31]

Answer:

Inverse function is f^{-1}(x)=\frac{3}{2}x+\frac{51}{2}.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given function is f\left(x\right)=\frac{2}{3}x-17.

Now we need to find the inverse of the given function.

Step 1: replace f(x) with y

y=\frac{2}{3}x-17

Step 2: switch x and y

x=\frac{2}{3}y-17

Step 3: solve for y

x=\frac{2}{3}y-17

x+17=\frac{2}{3}y

\frac{3}{2}(x+17)=y

\frac{3}{2}x+\frac{51}{2}=y

Hence required inverse function is f^{-1}(x)=\frac{3}{2}x+\frac{51}{2}.

3 0
3 years ago
What is the slope of the line that passes through the points (6, -5) and (6, -8)?
Anni [7]
(6,-5) (6,-8)

y2-y1/x2-x1

-8+5/6-6

-3/0

Undefined should be the answer. Hope this helped (:
4 0
3 years ago
In a particular card game, the minimum score a player can achieve in a single game is 20, and the maximum score possible in a si
Shalnov [3]
So if we want to know the least amount, we first want to assume the other two games both had a score of 52, so we can say the last one had the least possible.

So if both got 52, the total points would be 104, for two games of 52 points. Since we want 141 points, we therefore want 37 more points to reach 141.

So the least amount of points a player could've scored in one of the games was 37.
5 0
3 years ago
[ Easy Math ] Help me pls
goldfiish [28.3K]

Answer:

1) you're going to have to flip the coins (or fake numbers) for the experimental trials.

2) for the theoretical, there is 1/2 chance for heads or tails with each toss, so you'd expect that out of 10 tosses, 5 heads, 5 tails. out of 100 tosses- 50 heads, 50 tails.

When tossing 2 coins- 1/2×1/2 = 1/4 (25%) chance that 2 heads, 2 tails, or 1 heads & 1 tails. Deviation value comes from after you done your flipping and recorded your data. So if on 100 flips you actually got 50 and 50 (rarely us that exact ;), the deviation from the expected of 50/50 would be 0.00. If however you flipped 100 heads or 100 tails (impossible), then the deviation value would be 1.00.

|(100-50)| ÷ 50 = 50÷50 = 1.00

So usually you may have data like: 47/53 or something a little off than 50/50, making deviation |(47-50)| ÷ 50 = 3÷50 = 0.06.

Now the number of flips is important for the outcome! So if a coin toss if 10 times had 4 heads, 6 tails, the deviation value would be:

|(4-5)| ÷ 5 = 1÷5 = 0.20

So increasing the # flips DECREASES the deviation value!!

Whether it's from 10 to 100, or from 100 to 200. Look at my example of how the 10-flip deviation of 0.20 decreased to 0.06 with 100-flip

7 0
3 years ago
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