C. Your Answer Is 4. Which Is C
Step-by-step explanation:
y = (cos x)^(sin x)
Take log both sides.
ln y = ln ((cos x)^(sin x))
ln y = (sin x) ln (cos x)
Take derivative.
1/y dy/dx = (sin x) (1/cos x) (-sin x) + (cos x) ln (cos x)
dy/dx = y [ (cos x) ln (cos x) − sin x tan x ]
dy/dx = (cos x)^(sin x) [ (cos x) ln (cos x) − sin x tan x ]
Your answer is correct.
Dkdnksskmsmsmsmsmsmsmsmsms D)
\begin{aligned}Payment=183000\\ \cos t=4200000\cdot 0,75\% =3150000=c\\ Payment=C\dfrac {\left( 1+i\right) ^{n}\cdot i}{\left( 1+i\right) ^{n}-1}\\ n=25years\times \dfrac {12manths}{1year}=300months\\ 18300=3150000\cdot \dfrac {\left( 1+i\right) ^{300}\cdot i}{\left( 1+i\right) ^{300}\cdot i}\\ i=0,0041\\ i is the monhly interest_{i}\\ i\times 12months=APR\\ APR=0,0123=1,23%\end{aligned}
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the inequality
|x|> 1
The modulus of x shows that x can be both positive and negative value.
If x is positive:
x>1
1<x
If x is negative:
-x>1
Multiplying both sides of the inequality by minus will change the inequality sign
x < -1
Combining both inequalities:
1<x<-1
Find the position on the number line in the attachment
