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erma4kov [3.2K]
3 years ago
10

1/4 miles to a shoe store. Then you walk another 2/5 miles to a music store. How many miles have you walked in all?

Mathematics
1 answer:
zavuch27 [327]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

\frac{13}{20}

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{1}{4}  +  \frac{2}{5}

First, we need to make the demoninators the same so we times 4 by 5 and whatever we do to the bottom, we do to the top, and 5 by 4.

\frac{ 1 \times 5}{4 \times 5}  +  \frac{2 \times 4}{5 \times 4}

\frac{5}{20}  +  \frac{8}{20}

=  \frac{13}{20}

demoninator now doesn't change unless you're multiplying or dividing.

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slamgirl [31]

Answer:

Diego is correct.

He has correctly divided 1 in groups of \frac{5}{6}.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question 'How many groups of 5/6 are in 1?'  means that we need to divided 1 into groups of \\frac{5}{6}.

When we form groups from a given total, we divided the total by the size of the group.

If we are dividing N number of people in groups of x number of people, then the expression to find the number of groups formed can be given as:

⇒ \frac{N}{x}

For this question the data given is:

N=1

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So, the number of groups formed can be given as:

⇒ \frac{1}{\frac{5}{6}}

When divisor is a fraction, then we multiply the reciprocal of the divisor with the dividend.

⇒ 1\times\frac{6}{5}

⇒ \frac{6}{5}

In order to convert fraction to mixed number we will divide numerator with denominator and then write the quotient as whole number, remainder as numerator and the denominator remains as it is.

On dividing 6 by 5, the quotient =1 and remainder =1. Thus the mized number is:

⇒ 1\frac{1}{5}

Thus, there are \frac{6}{5} or 1\frac{1}{5} groups in 1. This matches with Diego's answer and hence he is correct.

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