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valentina_108 [34]
3 years ago
6

Why is x = 6 a solution to the proportion 192/36 = 32/x ?

Mathematics
2 answers:
gayaneshka [121]3 years ago
8 0

Because if 192/36 = 5.3333 and 32/6 = 5.3333 then the solution is right

densk [106]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

It is a solution because when you divide 192 by 36 you get 5 and one third. When you divide 32 by 6 you also get 5 and one third. This means they are equal.

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
A group of friends went out for dinner and decided to split the cost of the bill equally. If each person contributed $32, the fr
lianna [129]

Answer:

The number of friends that went out for dinner is 8

And their bill is $238

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's assume that the number of friends that went out for dinner to be x

And the bill for the dinner to be y

If each person contributed $32 and paid off the bill,they will have a balance of $18

32x - 18 = y_____equation 1

If each person contributed $35 and paid off the bill and also 15% tip,they will have a balance of $6.30

35x - 6.3 = y + (15% of y)

35x - 6.3 = y + (3y/20)

Open up the bracket

35x - 6.3 =(20y + 3y)/20

700x - 126 = 23y______equation 2

From equation 1,y = 32x - 18

Put the above in equation 2 and we have

700x - 126 = 23(32x -18)

700x - 126 = 736x - 414

collect like terms

36x = 288

x = 288/36

x = 8

Remember that equation 1 says that y = 32x - 18 and we now know that x = 8 .

Substitute and we have

(32 × 8) - 18

y = 238

The number of friends that went out for dinner is 8

And their bill is $238

3 0
3 years ago
1kg costs £1.28. what is the cost of 250g
vivado [14]
First, convert 1 kg to g.

1 kg = 1000 g

So 1000 g = 1.28

Set up a proportion:

1000/1.28 = 250/x

Cross multiply:

1000x = 320

Divide 1000 to both sides:

x = 0.32

So 250g costs £0.32
8 0
3 years ago
The _______ is used to express absolute temperatures in the English system of measurement.
astra-53 [7]
It would be the Kelvin Scale.
7 0
3 years ago
Line M is represented by the following equation x - y = 7 which equation completes the system that is satisfied by the solution
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

17-10=27-7=

7 0
3 years ago
Plssssss help me with this math pls
sdas [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is A) 4/663.

Step-by-step explanation:

First you find the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards. Since there are 4 queens(the queen of diamond, the queen of hearts, the queen of spades, and the queen of clubs) in a deck of 52 cards, the  probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards is 4/52.

Next you find the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards(since you did not replace the first card you drew). Since there are 4 kings(the king of diamond, the king of hearts, the king of spades, and the king  of clubs) in a deck of cards, the  probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards is 4/51.

Then you multiply the two probabilities to determine the probability of drawing a queen then a king. So,

4/52 x 4/51 =

4 x 4/52 x 51 =

16/2652

Finally, simplify the fraction. The greatest number that can go into both the numerator and denominator is 4. So divide both the numerator and denominator by 4. When you do this, you get the following:

16 divided by 4 = 4 as the numerator and

2652 divided by 4 = 663 as denominator.

So, the final answer is 4/663.

4 0
3 years ago
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