Answer:
Report a prior period adjustment decreasing retained earnings by $1,365,000.
Explanation:
Going by the question we can derive that $2,100,000 is the prior period's warranty. Consequently, it will be charged to the current year's earnings following the deduction of tax, 35%.
(2,100,000 *65) /100 = $1,365,000
This above calculation is so because Under the accrual basis of accounting...operating expense are reported on the income statement in the particular period when they took place or when they expire
Answer:
Option C, corporate-level planning, is the right answer.
Explanation:
Option C, “corporate-level planning” is the correct answer because it is the corporate planning according to which every employee has to work. If the quality of planning is good then the firm will produce higher output with lower operating cost and if the planning is not good or suitable then the firm can increase the productivity but operating cost may go very high. Therefore, option C is right.
Answer:
$532.24
Explanation:
Since Mr. Wise will be making monthly payments for the period of 25 years in order to accumulated the $1,000,000 at the end of 25 years, therefore, the future value of annuity shall be used to determine the monthly payments to be deposited by Mr Wise. The formula of future value of annuity is given as follows:
Future value of annuity=R[((1+i)^n-1)/i]
In the given scenario:
Future value of annuity=amount after 25 years=$1,000.000
R=monthly payments to be deposited by Mr Wise=?
i=interest rate per month=12/12=1%
n=number of payments involved=25*12=300
$1,000,000=R[((1+1%)^300-1)/1%]
R=$532.24
Answer:
uncollectible ammount expense 47,972 debit
allowance for doubtful account 47,972 credit
Explanation:
Fro mthe talbe we are given the amount of account over-time fro meach customer.
As we are presented with all date we should proceed directly with the journal entry:
the aging method stated an allowance of 60,727
the current balance is for <u> (12,755) </u>
the adjustment will be for: <em> 47,972 </em>
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