Initial price, P₀ = $1.25
Initial demand, Q₀ = 30 million
New price, P₁ = $1.75
New demand, Q₁ = 35 million
By definition, price elasticity is
η = (5/65)/(0.5/3)
= 0.4615
Answer: η = 0.46 (nearest hundredth)
This means that greater demand makes it possible to increase the price. Usually, this is not the case because lowering the price increases sales.
Answer:
=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.
=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.
Explanation:
So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.
The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;
The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.
Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.
= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.
Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .
Answer:
-$8,705
Explanation:
The computation of the Net present value is shown below
= Present value of all yearly cash inflows after applying discount factor + salvage value - initial investment
where,
The Initial investment is $110,000
All yearly cash flows would be
= Annual cost savings × PVIFA for 4 years at 12%
= $30,000 × 3.0373
= $91,119
Refer to the PVIFA table
And, the salvage value would be
= Salvage value × pvif for 4 years at 12%
= $16,000 × 0.636
= $10,176
The discount factor should be computed by
= 1 ÷ (1 + rate) ^ years
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $91,119 + $10,176 - $110,000
= -$8,705
Answer:
Assets increase by $75,000 and liabilities increase by $75,000.
Explanation:
