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borishaifa [10]
3 years ago
13

Manufacturing cycle time is best defined as the: length of the work shift, expressed in minutes per day. time it takes a unit to

move from one workstation to the next. time between the start of one unit and the start of the next unit. sum of all the task times to make one unit of a product. time from raw materials receipt to finished product exit.
Business
1 answer:
luda_lava [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

time from raw materials receipt to finished product exit.

Explanation:

Manufacturing cycle time is best defined as the "time from raw materials receipt to finished product exit."

To explain better, manufacturing cycle time is the overall time of process that covers the total duration it takes the final production of commodities to be made. That is beginning from the inception stage which is usually raw materials through its conversion stage and eventually into finished goods.

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All of the following are characteristics of a perfectly competitive market except: Group of answer choices barriers to entry per
Vesna [10]

Answer:

barriers to entry

Explanation:

The characteristics or attributes of the perfectly competitive market are as follows

1. There are large number of buyers and seller who purchase and sales similar kind of products

2. No transaction is involved

3. No barrier for entry and exit into the market

4. It contains the perfectly elastic demand

5. Perfect knowledge about the products

Therefore the first option is considered

7 0
3 years ago
The formula for the cross-price elasticity of demand is percentage change in rev: Multiple Choice quantity demanded of B/percent
seropon [69]

Answer:

Quantity demanded of B/percentage change in price of A.

Explanation:

Cross price elasticity of demand is calculated as follows:

= Percentage change in quantity demanded for Good B ÷ Percentage change in price of good A

Cross price elasticity of demand is positive for the substitute goods and negative for the complimentary goods.

For Substitute goods:

It states that there is a positive relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded for its substitute goods.

For complimentary goods:

It states that there is an inverse or negative relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded for its complimentary goods.

3 0
3 years ago
Competitive price taker firms always earn zero economic profit in long run equilibrium because:_______
Westkost [7]

Competitive price taker firms always earn zero economic profit in long-run equilibrium because of the following reasons which include easy entry & exit, small player etc.

Perfect competition exists when there are many sellers, firms can easily enter and exit, products are identical from one seller to the next, and sellers are price takers.

A perfectly competitive firm must accept the equilibrium price at which it sells goods because it is a price taker.

A perfectly competitive firm will be unable to make any sales if it charges even a small amount more than the market price.

Furthermore, a perfectly competitive firm must be a very small player in the overall market, allowing it to increase or decrease output without affecting the overall quantity supplied and price in the market.

Hence, Competitive price taker firms always earn zero economic profit in long-run equilibrium.

Learn more about Long-run equilibrium:

brainly.com/question/6275304

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
Choose the best closing for a message requesting the receiver's support for a proposed change in a benefits plan.
Svet_ta [14]
<span>Choose the best closing for a message requesting the receiver's support for a proposed change in a benefits plan. C</span><span>ontacting me by December 1 about your support of this new benefits plan will allow me to present this proposal at the next strategic planning session. Out of the above options, this option sounds the best and hits all of the necessary points to conclude a request. </span>
5 0
3 years ago
Are perfectly competitive markets allocatively allocatively efficient in the long​ run?
antiseptic1488 [7]
Yes, because firms produce where the marginal benefit to consumers equals the marginal cost of production.
7 0
3 years ago
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