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tekilochka [14]
2 years ago
5

4x 4/4 is equal to 1 , since 4/4 is equal to 1

Mathematics
1 answer:
Grace [21]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

False, it is equal to 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

The current question asks that 4 x 4/4 is equal to 1, since 4/4 is equal to 1, but this stems from a gross misinterpretation of mathematics.

Although it is true that 4/4 is equal to one, since the 4 parts that make up an integer are completed, when multiplying the number 1 4 times this mathematical operation will result in 4, since 4 x 1 = 4.

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alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

x = -8 and x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

given

f(x) = (x+8) (x - 4)

recall that at any point on the x-axis, y = 0 [i.e f(x) = 0]

hence to find where the graph crosses the x-axis, we simply substitue f(x) = 0 into the equation and solve for x

f(x) = (x+8) (x - 4)

0 = (x+8) (x - 4)

Hence

either,

(x+8) = 0 ----> x = -8  (first crossing point)

or

(x-4) = 0 ------> x = 4 (second crossing point)

Hence the graph crosses the x-axis at x = -8 and x = 4

7 0
3 years ago
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m_a_m_a [10]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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5 0
2 years ago
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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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8 0
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Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
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Mrrafil [7]
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