Answer:
1 in 4 chance
Step-by-step explanation:
because if it is a 50% chance to get heads on one toss, then for two tosses you have to multiply 1/2 * 1/2 and that equals 1/4
Answer:
ok
Step-by-step explanation:
180
180- 40=140
140 / 2= 70
The answer is: [A]: "right [triangle]" .
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Explanation:
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Given: Side lengths:
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" <span>24 in., 32 in., and 40 in " ;
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Divide each side length by "8" ;
</span><span>
24 in. / 8 = 3 in. ;
32 in. / 8 = 4 in. ; and
40 in. / 8 = 5 in. .
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3 in . , 4, in, 5 in. ; is a "right triangle" ;
since: 3</span>² + 4² = 5² ;
→ 9 + 16 = 25 ;
according to the Pythagorean theorem: " a² + b² = c² " .
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Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>For every time you have a probability of getting 1 is:</u>
<u>For all 6, the probability of outcome of 1 is:</u>
- P(1x6) = (1/10)⁶ = 0.000001
