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Katyanochek1 [597]
3 years ago
11

ass="latex-formula">
​
Mathematics
2 answers:
zvonat [6]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: y= -1

Step-by-step explanation:

2+y=1  

y=1-2

y=-1

morpeh [17]3 years ago
3 0
Answer: Y=-1

Step-by-step 2+y=1
-2 -2
Y= -1
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Angle A and Angle B are supplementary. Angle A has a measure of 3x - 6 and Angle B has a measure of 54. What is the value of x?
Anni [7]

Answer:

44 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Since they are supplementary, they add up to 180. This means that

3x - 6 + 54 = 180

Solving,

3x + 48 = 180

subtract 48 from both sides

3x = 132

divide both sides by 3

x = 44 degrees

8 0
3 years ago
Brainliest to right person
atroni [7]

Answer:

4 ÷ 6/9 is also equal to 4 x 9/6. This is because when you divide by a fraction, you change the division sign to multiply and reverse the numerator and the denominator of the fraction. For example, if x/y was a fraction, it would become y/x. THIS IS ONLY DURING DIVISION!

So, we now that 4 ÷ 6/9 is equal to 4 x 9/6. 4 x 9/6 = (4x9)/6 = 36/6 = 6.

7 0
3 years ago
Given a standard deck of 52 cards, 3 cards are dealt without replacement. Using this situation, answer the questions below.<b
kherson [118]
Given that <span>3 cards are dealt without replacement in a </span><span>standard deck of 52 cards.

Part A:

There are 4 queens in a standard deck of 52 card, thus the probability that the first card is a queen is given by 4 / 52 = 1 / 13.

Since, the first card is not replaced, thus there are 3 queens remaining and 51 ards remaining in total, thus the probability that the second card is a queen is given</span> by 3 / 51 = 1 / 17

Similarly the probability that the third card is a queen is given by 2 / 50 = 1 / 25.

Therefore, the probability that <span>all three cards are queens is given by

\frac{1}{13} \times \frac{1}{17} \times \frac{1}{25} = \frac{1}{5525}



Part B:

Yes the probability of drawing a queen of heart is independent of the probability of drawing a queen of diamonds because they are separate cards and drawing one of the cards does not in any way affect the chance of drawing the other card.



Part C:

Given that the first card is a queen, then there are 3 queens remaining out of 51 cards remaining, thus the number of cards that are not queen is 51 - 3 = 48 cards.

Therefore, </span>if the first card is a queen, the probability that the second card will not be a queen is given by 48 / 51 = 16 / 17



Part D:

<span>Given that the first two card are queens, then there are 2 queens remaining out of 50 cards remaining.

Therefore, </span>if two of the three cards are queens ,<span>the probability that you will be dealt three queens</span> is given by 2 / 50 = 1 / 25 = 0.04



Part E:

<span>Given that the first two card are queens, then there are 2 queens remaining out of 50 cards remaining, thus the number of cards that are not queen is 50 - 2 = 48 cards.

Therefore, </span>if two of the three cards are queens ,the probability that the other card is not a queen is given by 48 / 50 = 24 / 25 = 0.96
8 0
3 years ago
Alguem me ajuda<br>por favor​
andre [41]

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6 0
3 years ago
An 18 foot ladder is leaned against a wall if the base of the ladder is 8 feet from the wall how high up on the wall will the la
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