You didn't supply any rules or constraints so.... 1 in., 1 in., and 1 in.
You can use the Pythagorean Theorem to check if the side lengths are appropriate.

–this is true.
Answer:
the answer that 9-(2,4)
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:21
Step-by-step explanation: solve whats in the numerator then solve whats in the denominator then you divide
This would not be binomial; the probabilities are not independent, since the balls are drawn without replacement.