Hello :
<span>f(x)= x +2 and g(x)= 1/x
</span><span>(g o f)(x) = g(f(x))=g(x+2) = 1/(x+2)</span>
Answer:
x = -3/8
Step-by-step explanation:
4(3-2x)=15
Distribute
12 -8x = 15
Subtract 12 from each side
12-8x-12 = 15-12
-8x =3
Divide each side by -8
-8x/-8 = 3/-8
x = -3/8
Answer:
D- the number of times you get heads when you flip a coin 100 times
Step-by-step explanation:
It’s funny cause I have a friend named Rashawn
But y intercept would be 550 then multiply 8 by 6to get 48
So your answer should be $598 in 6 years
Answer:a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)=1.3×10^-8
b) P(7 of the players number are drrawn)=3.33×10^-c) P(at least 6 of the players number were drawn)=1.84×10^-4
Step-by-step explanation:
Players has 8 combinations of numbers from 1-40. The outcome S contains all the combinations of 8 out of 40
a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)= 1/40/8= 1.3×10^-8
There are one in hundred million chances that the draw numbers are precisely the chosen ones.
b) Number of ways of drawing 78 selected numbers from 1-40=8×(40-7)
8×32
P(7 of the players number are drawn)=8×32/40 =3.33×10^-6.
There are approximately 300,000 chances that 7 of the players numbers are chosen
c) P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)= 32/2×(8/6) ways to draw.
P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)=P(all 8 chosen are drawn)+P(7 players numbers drawn)+P(6 chosen are drawn) = 1+ 8 x32/40/8 +[8\6 ×32/2]
P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn) = 1.84×10^-4.
There are approximately 5400chances that at least6 of the numbers drawn are chosen by the player.