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skad [1K]
3 years ago
7

The manager of a fast food franchise will establish ________ in regard to how many hamburgers to cook each hour.

Business
1 answer:
Elanso [62]3 years ago
6 0
<span>I'm pretty sure there should be some options to choose. Anyway I know correct answer. Here it is: The manager of a fast food franchise will establish o</span><span>perational plans</span> in regard to how many hamburgers to cook each hour. Operational plan provides an actual picture of the company's current situation, and it's needed to achieve some strategic goals. 
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The mean cost of a meal for two in a mid-range restaurant in Tokyo is $40 (Numbeo website, December 14, 2014). How do prices for
natali 33 [55]

Answer:

a. 2.13. b. (30.53, 34.79). c. The mean prices for two in mid-range restaurants in Hong Kong are relatively less than those in Tokyo restaurants.

Explanation:

The size of the sample is 42 and the mean of the sample is ∑x_{i}n = 32.66 and the standard deviation of the sample (σ) is √[∑(x_{i}-μ)^2 - 1] = √46.6092 = 6.8271

a. α = 1 - (95/100) = 0.05; α/2 = 0.025; the degree of freedom = n-1 = 42-1 = 41; tα/2 = t0.025 = 2.02. Thus, the error margin = (tα/2)*(σ/√n) = 2.02*(6.83/√42) = 2.1279

b. Lower level limit = 32.66 - 2.1279 = 30.5321; Upper level limit = 32.66+2.1279 = 34.7879. The interval estimate = (mean± margin of error) = (30.53, 34.79).

c. The mean prices for two in mid-range restaurants in Hong Kong are relatively less than those in Tokyo restaurants.

3 0
3 years ago
A bear market is distinguished by ________.
kiruha [24]
<span>A bear market is distinguished by a declining stock market and decreasing investor confidence. A bear market is when security prices fall and the stock market starts to take a downward turn. The market tries to become self-sustaining so investors start to sell off their stocks and securities. </span>
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Discuss the impact that checking merchandise has on profitability.
balandron [24]

Answer:

waitin for the EXHALE

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation was established in 1933, during the Great Depression, to:_________
ICE Princess25 [194]

Answer:

b) help stop bank failures throughout the United States.

Explanation:

A bank run can be defined as a situation where bank clients or depositors make withdrawals of their money simultaneously from banks as a result of them being scared or afraid the depository institution will run out of cash (bankruptcy) and become insolvent.

The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation which is also generally referred to as the FDIC was a New Deal program introduced by President Franklin D. Roosevelt in 1933 and it was designed to prevent bank failures or bank runs and restore the public's faith in the banking system.

Hence, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) was established on the 16th of June, 1933 so as to counter or mitigate the problem with bank runs.

Generally, the income generated from the premium payments of insured banks is used to fund or finance the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).

Additionally, to avoid bank runs or other financial institutions from being insolvent, the Federal Reserve (Fed) and Central banks (lender of last resort) are readily accessible and available to give monetary funds to these institutions when they're running out of money and as well as regulate their activities.

In conclusion, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) was established in 1933, during the Great Depression, to help stop bank failures throughout the United States.

7 0
2 years ago
Suppose Simmons' common stock has a beta of 1.37, the risk-free rate is 3.4 percent, and the market risk premium is 8.2 percent.
rjkz [21]

Answer:

The WACC of the firm is 11.91%

Explanation:

The WACC or weighted average cost of capital is the rate of return that a business is expected to pay to all of its security holders- bonds, common stock, preferred stock- or is the cost of capital for the business.

To calculate the WACC, we use the following formula,

WACC = D/A * (1-tax rate) * rD  +  E/A * rE

Where,

  • D/A and E/A is the weightage of debt and assets as a proportion of total assets
  • rD * (1-tax rate) is the after tax cost of debt
  • rE is the cost of equity or required rate of return on equity

We first need to calculate the required rate of return on equity (r). We will use the CAPM formula for r.

r = 0.034 + 1.37 * 0.082

r = 0.14634 or 14.634%

The total assets are equal to,

Assets = Debt + Equity

If for every $1 of equity, there is $0.45 of debt as given by debt-equity ratio.

Then,

Assets = 0.45 + 1    

Assets = $1.45

WACC = 0.45/1.45 * (1-0.23) * 0.076  +  1/1.45 * 0.14634

WACC = 0.11908 or 11.908% rounded off to 11.91%

7 0
3 years ago
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