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OLEGan [10]
3 years ago
6

Determine LaShawn's average speed in meters per hour

Mathematics
1 answer:
abruzzese [7]3 years ago
6 0
His average speed per minute is 1,448 meters per minute, and there are 60 minutes in a single hour. You would multiply 1,448 by 60 to get the answer of 86,880 meters per hour.
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Triangle ABC is congruent with triangle CDA Find the value of the pronumeral x.
brilliants [131]

Answer:

x = 25

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the triangles are congruent then corresponding angles are congruent.

That is ∠ D and ∠ B are corresponding angles and congruent, thus

4x - 20 = 2x + 30 ( subtract 2x from both sides )

2x - 20 = 30 ( add 20 to both sides )

2x = 50 ( divide both sides by 2 )

x = 25

6 0
3 years ago
Simplify the expression. 68 – 18 ÷ 3 • 6 Please help
MAXImum [283]
Remember PEMDAS (Parenthesis, Exponents, Multiplication, Divison, Addition and Subtraction)

Also note that Multiplication and Division needs to be done left to right and the same goes for Addition and Subtraction.

So in your problem, the first operation we need to do is division.

68 - (18/3) x 6
68 - 6 x 6

Now we do multiplication
68 - 6 x 6
68 - 36

Finally we do subtraction because that's the only operation we have left to do
68 - 36 = 32

So your answer should be 32.
5 0
4 years ago
Help please ‼️‼️‼️‼️
Andrei [34K]

Answer:

I got (y-7)=1/13(x+6) for point slope

and y=1/3x+13 for slope intercept form

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3 0
3 years ago
If I made $1,000 every 2 minutes, how much would I have in an hour?
nika2105 [10]

Answer:

$30,000

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 60 minutes in an hour. There are 30 two minutes in 60 minutes. 30*1,000 = 30,000.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The probability that a certain virus infects a random person is 0.2. If a random sample of 15 people is taken, what is the proba
Drupady [299]

Answer:

0.9648

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

p = 0.2

Sample size = Number of trials (n) = 15

Probability that atleast one person is infected.

This can be solved using the binomial probability function :

P(x = x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n-x)

P(x ≥ 1) = p(1) + p(2) + p(3) +... + p(15)

The sum of the individual probabilities of p(1) up to p(15)

Therefore, to save computation time, we can use the binomial probability calculator :

P(x ≥ 1) = 0.9648

3 0
3 years ago
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