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3 years ago

Define Mechanical advantage

Physics

1 answer:

Kisachek [45]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

1) 1000Nm

2) 95,625Nm

3) 1.05%

Explanation:

Mechanical Advantage is the ratio of the load to the effort applied to an object.

MA = Load/Effort

1) Workdone on the load = Force(Load) * distance covered by the load

Workdone on the load = 500N * 2m

Workdone on the load = 1000Nm

2) work done by the effort = Effort * distance moves d by effort

work done by the effort = 2125 * 45

work done by the effort = 95,625Nm

3) Efficiency = Workdone on the load/ work done by the effort * 100

Efficiency = 1000/95625 * 100

Efficiency = 1.05%

Hence the efficiency of the system is 1.05%

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MathPhys pls help with my physics homework !

Papessa [141]

Answer:

003) 2. is the same as when it started from rest

004) 4. tAB / tA'B' = 1

005) vA/vA' = 1/2

Explanation:

I will do 3, 4, and 5 as examples.

003) Impulse = change in momentum

F Δt = m Δv

The same force and same time interval are exerted on the cart, so it's the same impulse. Therefore, the change in momentum is the same as when the cart started from rest.

004) In each case, the block has the same initial height and the same initial vertical velocity, so the time to land is the same.

005) In the inelastic case:

momentum before = momentum after

M₁ v₁ = (M₁ + m₂) vA

vA = M₁ v₁ / (M₁ + m₂)

In the elastic case:

M₁ v₁ = -M₁ v₁' + m₂ vA'

v₁' = (m₂ vA' − M₁ v₁) / M₁

Energy is also conserved in elastic collisions:

½ M₁ v₁² = ½ M₁ v₁'² + ½ m₂ vA'²

M₁ v₁² = M₁ v₁'² + m₂ vA'²

M₁ v₁² = M₁ (m₂ vA' − M₁ v₁)² / M₁² + m₂ vA'²

M₁ v₁² = (m₂ vA' − M₁ v₁)² / M₁ + m₂ vA'²

M₁² v₁² = (m₂ vA' − M₁ v₁)² + M₁ m₂ vA'²

M₁² v₁² = m₂² vA'² − 2 m₂ M₁ vA' v₁ + M₁² v₁² + M₁ m₂ vA'²

0 = m₂² vA'² − 2 m₂ M₁ vA' v₁ + M₁ m₂ vA'²

0 = m₂ vA' − 2 M₁ v₁ + M₁ vA'

2 M₁ v₁ = (m₂ + M₁) vA'

vA' = 2 M₁ v₁ / (m₂ + M₁)

Therefore:

vA/vA' = 1/2

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3 years ago

Orbital velocity is the average speed ofa planet moving through space in itsorbit around the sun. Which of thefollowing planets

liubo4ka [24]

Answer:

Mercury

Explanation:

The force of gravity is equal to the mass times the centripetal acceleration:

Fg = m v² / r

Also, the force of gravity is defined by Newton's law of universal gravitation, which states the Fg = mMG / r², where m and M are the masses of the objects, G is the universal constant of gravitation, and r is the distance between the objects.

mMG / r² = m v²/ r

MG / r = v²

This means the square of the orbital velocity is equal to the mass of the sun times the universal constant of gravity divided by the orbital radius. So whichever planet has the smallest orbital radius will have the highest orbital velocity. Of the four options, that would be Mercury.

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3 years ago

An electric motor has an effective resistance of 22 22 and an inductive reactance of 72 12 when working under load. The voltage

Alecsey [184]

Answer:

Current amplitude, I = 5.57 A

Explanation:

It is given that,

Effective resistance, R = 22 ohms

Inductive reactance, L = 72 ohms

Voltage of the alternating source, V = 420 volt

The total impedance of the RL circuit is given by :

$Z=\sqrt{R^2+L^2}$

$Z=\sqrt{(22)^2+(72)^2}$

Z = 75.28 ohms

From Ohm's law,

$V=I\times Z$

$I=\dfrac{V}{Z}$

$I=\dfrac{420}{75.28}$

I = 5.57 A

So, the current amplitude of the electric motor is 5.57 A. Hence, this is the required solution.

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Explain why your hands feel cool if they get wet?

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Answer:

How hot or cold you feel depends on the rate at which your body is losing heat to the environment

Water on your skin acts pretty much like sweat. Water is more thermally conductive than air; therefore, the skin loses its heat to it much faster than it would to air.

Also, because water evaporates, it carries heat away from the skin and this increases the rate at which the skin loses its heat. The faster heat loss from the skin to water is what makes us feel cold when we are wet. But of course, the temperature of water has to be lower than the skin for this to occur, which is usually the case.

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Two very quick questions!!

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3 years ago

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