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2 years ago

10

If two automobiles have the same velocity do they have the same acceleration?

2 answers:

kirza4 [7]2 years ago

8 0

No, it is not necessary for them to have the same acceleration.
For example, one may be speeding up while the other is slowing down. For an instant, their velocities may become the same but their accelerations are different.

Fittoniya [83]2 years ago

5 0

they may have different acceleration

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Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Integrating the velocity equation, we will see that the position equation is:

$$f(t)=\frac{\cos ^3(\omega t)-1}{3}$

<h3>How to get the position equation of the particle?</h3>

Let the velocity of the particle is:

$$v(t)=\sin (\omega t) * \cos ^2(\omega t)$

To get the position equation we just need to integrate the above equation:

$$f(t)=\int \sin (\omega t) * \cos ^2(\omega t) d t$

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Then:

$$d u=-\sin (\omega t) d t$

$\Rightarrow d t=-d u / \sin (\omega t)$

Replacing that in our integral we get:

$\int \sin (\omega t) * \cos ^2(\omega t) d t$

$-\int \frac{\sin (\omega t) * u^2 d u}{\sin (\omega t)}-\int u^2 d t=-\frac{u^3}{3}+c$

Where C is a constant of integration.

Now we remember that $u=\cos (\omega t)$

Then we have:

$$f(t)=\frac{\cos ^3(\omega t)}{3}+C$

To find the value of C, we use the fact that f(0) = 0.

$$f(t)=\frac{\cos ^3(\omega * 0)}{3}+C=\frac{1}{3}+C=0$

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Then the position function is:

$$f(t)=\frac{\cos ^3(\omega t)-1}{3}$

Integrating the velocity equation, we will see that the position equation is:

$$f(t)=\frac{\cos ^3(\omega t)-1}{3}$

To learn more about motion equations, refer to:

brainly.com/question/19365526

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