Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
The mean for the binomial distribution is given by:
And the variance is given by:
And the deviation is just the square root of the variance so we got:
Answer:
245+368=?-976
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
5 to the twentieth power
Step-by-step explanation:
or
and so on
Answer:
Option C is correct.
Step-by-step explanation:
y = x^2-x-3 eq(1)
y = -3x + 5 eq(2)
We can solve by substituting the value of y in eq(2) in the eq(1)
-3x+5 = x^2-x-3
x^2-x+3x-3-5=0
x^2+2x-8=0
Now factorizing the above equation
x^2+4x-2x-8=0
x(x+4)-2(x+4)=0
(x-2)(x+4)=0
(x-2)=0 and (x+4)=0
x=2 and x=-4
Now finding the value of y by placing value of x in the above eq(2)
put x =2
y = -3x + 5
y = -3(2) + 5
y = -6+5
y = -1
Now, put x = -4
y = -3x + 5
y = -3(-4) + 5
y = 12+5
y =17
so, when x=2, y =-1 and x=-4 y=17
(2,-1) and (-4,17) is the solution.
So, Option C is correct.
<span>53-14=39, 39x8=312 hours.
Now I will calculate it for a regular year.
52-14=38, 38x8=304 hours.
nope!!!! that's wrong i don't see why everyone says that's the answer
well they didn't add there calculations right
so let me show you the right way!
</span>There are 2 weekend days a week,
so that's 8 hrs x 2 weekend days.
<span>There are 52 weeks in a year.
If you subtract the 2 weeks you take off and don't work, that leaves 50.
</span>
that's the only way you can get this answer
you welcome! ;)
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