1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Nastasia [14]
3 years ago
13

The scale factor of the two shapes is 0.5 (or 1/2). True or false? B 32.4 km W 36 km 18 km True False​

Mathematics
1 answer:
yulyashka [42]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: True

Step-by-step explanation:

The scale factor between shapes is the number that when multiplied by the dimensions of the original shape will give the dimensions of the transformed shape.

Likewise when the dimensions of the transformed shape is divided by this number, it will yield the dimensions of the original shape.

The original shape has a length of 36km.

= 36 * 0.5

= 18 km

This proves that 0.5 is the scale factor because when the length of the original shape was multiplied by it, the result was the length of the transformed shape.

You might be interested in
A washer and dryer cost a total of $1152. The cost of the washer is two times the cost of the dryer. Find the cost of each item.
ASHA 777 [7]

Answer: 576 for both

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is 3 less than -2
Anastasy [175]
-2 - 3 = -5
The answer is negative 5.
4 0
3 years ago
Who can answer this first POINTS AND BRAINLIEST
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:1.45

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide.

7 0
3 years ago
The table below shows the amounts of lemon juice and sugar used in each container of lemonade. The ratio of lemon juice to sugar
stira [4]
1/2 : 1
2 : 4
3 : 6
Notice that every ratio consists of a number and double the number.

For 1/2 cup lemon juice, use 1 cup sugar.
The amount of sugar is twice the amount of lemon juice.

The ratio is 1:2
Since you are told the ratio is 1:r, that means r is 2.

The unit rate is 2 cups sugar per cup of lemon juice.
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
consider there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time. Therate of producing a faulty pin from M
blondinia [14]

Answer:

0.03333

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.

Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3

The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.

Machine             I                     II              III                  total

Faulty              0.10                0.20        0.05

Prob                0.3333           0.3333    0.3334             1

Faulty*prob    0.03333         0.06666  0.16665         0.26664

Thus probability  that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine

= 0.03333

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Please help me answer these e questions pleasesssss
    8·1 answer
  • How do ypu slove dis? <br>y^2(q-4) - c(q - 4)
    8·1 answer
  • 4. A rectangle is inscribed into a circle. The rectangle is cut along one of its diagonals and reflected across that diagonal to
    15·1 answer
  • The newly elected president needs to decide the remaining 7 spots available in the cabinet he/she is appointing. If there are 13
    10·1 answer
  • Find the solution set x^2+2x-8=0 separate the two answers with a comma
    8·1 answer
  • What is the mean of 4,6,7,7,11,12,15,18,20
    5·2 answers
  • Evaluate ÷x+2 for x=49 <br>12<br>2<br>9<br>15 ​
    11·2 answers
  • PLEASE HELP!!!! will give brainliest points to whoever answers first!!!! only going on for 30 minutes.
    8·2 answers
  • Helpp<br> 11 7/8 + 4 1/2
    12·2 answers
  • HELP!! Does this graph show a function?
    14·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!