Answer: (x – 1)(x + 1)(x + 5) = 0
x – 1 = 0, so x = 1
x + 1 = 0, so x = -1
x + 5 = 0, so x = -5
Answer:
1.6 ft
Step-by-step explanation:
If you use the Pythagorean Theorem to solve for x, you get:
Rounded to the nearest tenth, the answer is 1.6
Answer:
0.03333
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.
Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3
The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.
Machine I II III total
Faulty 0.10 0.20 0.05
Prob 0.3333 0.3333 0.3334 1
Faulty*prob 0.03333 0.06666 0.16665 0.26664
Thus probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine
= 0.03333
9x1=9
9-9(3n)
9-27n
Can’t be solved
