We found a counterexample, so the statement is false.
<h3>
Is the statement true?</h3>
Let's use the matrix:
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}-2&0&0&0\\0&1&0&0\\0&0&1&0\\ 0&0&0&1 \end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D-2%260%260%260%5C%5C0%261%260%260%5C%5C0%260%261%260%5C%5C%200%260%260%261%20%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
This is a 4x4 matrix with determinant equal to -2.
The inverse matrix is:
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1/2&0&0&0\\0&-1&0&0\\0&0&-1&0\\ 0&0&0&-1 \end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D1%2F2%260%260%260%5C%5C0%26-1%260%260%5C%5C0%260%26-1%260%5C%5C%200%260%260%26-1%20%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
If we multiply it by 2, we get:
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&0&0&0\\0&-2&0&0\\0&0&-2&0\\ 0&0&0&-2 \end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D1%260%260%260%5C%5C0%26-2%260%260%5C%5C0%260%26-2%260%5C%5C%200%260%260%26-2%20%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
The adjoint of that is the original matrix, actually:
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}-2&0&0&0\\0&1&0&0\\0&0&1&0\\ 0&0&0&1 \end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D-2%260%260%260%5C%5C0%261%260%260%5C%5C0%260%261%260%5C%5C%200%260%260%261%20%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
Which we already know, has a determinant of -2.
So the statement is false, as we found a counterexample.
If you want to learn more about matrices:
brainly.com/question/11989522
#SPJ1
Slimplify 2-2/3 to 4/3
1/2*2-6*4/3
slimplify 1/2*2 to 1
1-6*4/3
slimplify 6*4/3 to 24/3
1-24/3
slimplify 24/3 to 8
1-8
slimplify
-7
YOUR ANSWER IS IN THE ATTACHMENT PLZZ REFER TO THE ATTACHMENT
Answer:
it's B
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:

72.5% As a Fraction
= 
=
=
=
:) I hope this helped you