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3 years ago

Which algebraic expression is equivalent to the expression below? (6x + 13) + 6

Mathematics

1 answer:

finlep [7]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

6x+19

Step-by-step explanation:

The parentheses do nothing here to stop you from adding - since every term in here is only being added, there is no reason to worry about the parentheses. Simply combine like terms (13 + 6) to achieve 6x + 19.

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Hello, can you help me with a probability question, please:)

sladkih [1.3K]

Ok what is it that u need

6 0

2 years ago

A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr

ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And $\pi$ is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so $\pi = 0.30$

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so $n = 10$

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211$

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is $P(X > 1)$

We have that:

$P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1$

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)$

We also have that:

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

$P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282$

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493$

Finally

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507$

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0

3 years ago

Graph the following inequality. Click on the graph until the correct one appears.

exis [7]

Answer: Its the first one

You draw the graph of the line y=3x+5

but make the line dotted.

Label the line y>3x+5

Note that if instead we hade y≥3x+5 the line would be solid.

If you draw a line parallel to the y-axis through any x-value the value of y can be any on that vertical line that is above but not on the line y=3x+5

. So you end up with a 'feasible' region of solutions for y

5 0

3 years ago

A football team loses 7 yards on each of 2 consecutive plays. Find the total change in yards from where the team started.

kupik [55]

Answer:

confusion

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is 71.09 rounded off to the nearest whole number

masha68 [24]

It is 71 because 0 is less than 5, so it stays the same.

5 0

3 years ago