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Gnesinka [82]
3 years ago
12

HELP PLEASE LOTS OF POINTS!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Paladinen [302]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

<em>Thus, f and g are inverse functions</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Inverse Functions</u>

If two functions f(x) and g(x) are inverses, then it follows that:

f\circ g(x)=x

Or:

g\circ  f(x)=x

We are given

\displaystyle f(x)=\frac{1}{4}x-6

g(x)=4x+24

Let's test if they are inverse functions:

f\circ g(x)=\frac{1}{4}(4x+24)-6

Simplifying:

f\circ g(x)=x+6-6=x

Now find:

\displaystyle g\circ f(x)=4\left(\frac{1}{4}x-6\right)+24

Operating:

\displaystyle g\circ f(x)=x-24+24=x

Thus, f and g are inverse functions

My name is Ann [436]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Have a good day and spread this message around!

Step-by-step explanation:

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