I think the answer is Downwards;increases
Answer:
Thomas capital
Equipment $30,000
Inventory 25,000
Cash <u> 45,000</u>
Total <u> 100,000</u>
Explanation:
Equipment : thebook value is $25,000 while the market value is $30,000. the market value of the equipment will be used.
Inventory : the book value is $50,000 while the market value is $25,000. As a result of obsolescence, the inventory will be value at lower of cost and net realizable value(IAS2). therefore, $25,000 will be recognized for the inventory in the determination of Thomas capital
Cash: there is no changes in cash contributed.
Answer:
the depreciation expense on the equipment will be 1,785 for tax purpose.
Explanation:
We will look into the MACRS (Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System)
table for a property of seven years placen into service in the 4th quarter:
Which give us 3.57%
now we multiply the basis by the coefficient and get the value for depreciation
50,000 x 3.57% = 1,785 depreciation expense under MACRS
Answer:
The situation is called insolvency. bank is unable to pay to depositor.
Explanation:
The situation is called insolvency. insolvency is refer to the situation when debtor is unable return its debt. The same is happened in the given situation. In the above case due to not paid by manufacturing unit, bank is unable to pay to depositor.
Insolvency is refer to that critical condition when debtor unable to pay amount to depositor. In the above given case even if bank want to sell its all assets it cannot cover its liabilities.
It seems fine to me at the part where it says when you work if you are going to abbreviate days then abbreviate them all and that's pretty much all I have to say