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trapecia [35]
3 years ago
5

The scientist creates an equation that models her data for each tree so that she can predict the diameter in the future. Complet

e a linear equations that fits the data for tree 1, where x is the year and y is the trunk diameter, in inches.
Mathematics
1 answer:
otez555 [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

y = 0.3X + 18.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that data :

x = year ;

y = trunk diameter, in inches

Year ________trunk diameter

1 __ 18.6

3 __ 19.2

5 __ 19.8

7 __ 20.4

9 ___21.0

11 __ 21.6

13 __ 22.2

Using the linear regression calculator :

The linear equation obtained is :

y = 0.3X + 18.3

Where ;

Slope = 0.3 ; intercept, c = 18.3

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Four different sets of objects contain 2, 5, 6, and 7 objects, respectively. How many unique combinations can be formed by picki
mario62 [17]
The correct answer for the question that is being presented above is this one: "A. 960."<span>Four different sets of objects contain 2, 5, 6, and 7 objects, respectively. 
</span>
= 2 * 5 * 6 * 7
= 960

Here are the following choices:
A. 960 
<span>B. 141 </span>
<span>C. 23 </span>
D. 529
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
laura has 160 pounds of green beans at her vegetable stand. she sells 10 pounds of green beans every hour, what is the percent d
ycow [4]

Answer:

18.75%

Step-by-step explanation:

Green beans = 160 pounds

Amount sold in 1 hour = 10 pounds

Amount sold in 3 hours = 3x10= 30 pounds

Decrease in 3 hours = 30 pounds

% decrease = (30/160) x 100

=300/16

=75/4

=18.75%

7 0
3 years ago
-10 · (-12) = <br> (Is there some way you can explain how you got the answer.)
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]
The answer is 120 what you do you take -10 and multiply it by -12. Why a positive 120 you may ask because when you multiply two numbers with the same sign the answer should be positive no matter what. Hope I helped!
4 0
3 years ago
How tall is a stack of ten pennies in centimeters?
disa [49]
A penny is 1.52 mm, so 10 pennies are 15.2 mm. 15.2 mm=1.52 cm
So a stack of 10 pennies is 1.52 centimeters<span />
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
One thousand independent rolls of a fair die will be made. Compute an approximation to the probability that the number 6 will ap
pashok25 [27]

Answer:

0.19

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that

Number of rolls of die=n=1000

Let the event of six coming up be success.Then, in each trial , the probability of success =p=P(success)=P(6)=\frac{1}{6}

Let X be the random variable  for the number of sixes  in the 1000 rolls of die.

Then, X\sim Binom(1000,\frac{1}{6})

Since, n is very large,the binomial random variable can be approximated as normal random variable.

Mean,\mu=np=1000\times \frac{1}{6}=166.67

Variance=\sigma^2=np(1-p)=1000\times \farc{1}{6}\times (1-\frac{1}{6})=1000\times \frac{5}{36}=138.89

X\sim N(166.67,138.89)

P(150\leq X\leq 200)=P[\frac{150-166.67}{11.79}\leq \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}\leq \frac{200-166.67}{11.79}]

=P[-1.41\leq Z\leq 2.83]=P[Z\leq 2.83]-P[Z

=\phi(2.83)-\phi(-1.41)

=0.9977-0.0793=0.9184

Thus, the probability that the number 6 appears between 150 to 200 times=0.92

Now, given that 6 appears exactly 200 times .

Therefore, other number appear in other 800 rolls .

We have to find the probability that the  number 5 will appear less than 150 times.

Therefore, for 800 rolls, let the event of 5 coming up be success.

Then , p=P(success)=P(5)=\frac{1}{5}

Let Y be the random variable denoting the number of times  5 coming up in 800 rolls.

Then, Y\sim bin(800,\frac{1}{5})

Mean,\mu=np=800\times \frac{1}{5}=160

Variance, \sigma^2=np(1-p)=800\times \frac{1}{5}(1-\frac{1}{5})=128

Y\sim N(160,128) because n is large

P(Y

P(Y

Hence, the probability that the number 5 will appear less than 150 times given that 6 appeared exactly 200 times=0.19

4 0
3 years ago
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