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guajiro [1.7K]
3 years ago
6

A bag has one red ball, three blue balls and twice as many green balls as blue balls. if one ball is drawn (without looking) fro

m the bag what are the chances that the ball will be blue?
Mathematics
2 answers:
vlada-n [284]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: 30% or 3/10

Step-by-step explanation:

First you need to figure out how many balls are in the bag. There is 1 red, 3 blue, and 2x (x=# of blue balls) green balls. since there is 3 blue balls you double 3 to get how many green balls there are, which is 6. Then you do 1+3+6 to give you 10. Since there is 3 blue balls in a bag that consists of 10 balls, you have a probability of 3/10 or 30% or .3 to draw a blue ball.

WITCHER [35]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

3/10 or three tenths or 0.3 or 0.30

Step-by-step explanation:

Plz brainliest

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PLEASE HELP im super confused
FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:

7 Quarters and 3 dimes

Step-by-step explanation:

You have to find how many quarters (0.25) and dimes (0.10) are in $2.05. There are 7 quarters, which will add up to $1.75. You can't have 8 quarters because then you would have 2 dollars, and there wouldn't be enough for a dime, there would only by 5 cents left, or a nickle. Then, you find out how many nickels you need, which is 3.

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2 years ago
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1.

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f(x)=2x^2\qquad g(x)=8x^2+3x\\\\g(f(x))=8(2x^2)^2+3(2x^2)=8\cdot4x^4+6x^2=\boxed{32x^4+6x^2}

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3 years ago
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nexus9112 [7]
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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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