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nalin [4]
3 years ago
6

Please help on a time limt!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
SVEN [57.7K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: it's 1,3,5 Or A,C,E

Step-by-step explanation:

Andru [333]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: we cannot help with test bro only homework and assignments

Step-by-step explanation:

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Compare the graph of f (x) with the graph of k (x) = 2 (x-8)2
Bingel [31]

Answer:

one is not linear

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Sheila paid $8.68 for 7 flower<br> plants. How much did she pay for<br> each plant?
Olin [163]

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$1.24 per plant

Step-by-step explanation:

You just have to divide the total amount paid by the number of flowers.

8 0
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Help w number 8, will mark brainliest !!!
eimsori [14]

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d

Step-by-step explanation:

because both the measurement and the congruent side are opposite in sentence

3 0
3 years ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
Which image is a reflection of the orange letter K in Quadrant I?
stellarik [79]

Answer: Quadrant 4

Step-by-step explanation:

pls give brainliest

have a nice day!

6 0
2 years ago
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