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11111nata11111 [884]
2 years ago
12

A cone has a surface area of 200 pi square inches. If the radius of the

Mathematics
1 answer:
Helen [10]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

20\:\mathrm{in}

Step-by-step explanation:

The lateral surface area of a cone is given by A=\pi r\ell, where r is the radius of the base of the cone and \ell is the cone's slant height.

Solving for \ell:

200\pi=10\pi\ell,\\\ell=\frac{200\pi}{100\pi}=\boxed{20\:\mathrm{in}}

*Note: It is implied that the surface area of 200 pi square inches is lateral surface area and not total surface area, because it is impossible to obtain a total surface area of 200 pi with a radius of 10 inches.

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Five cards are drawn from a standard 52-card playing deck. A gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and on
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Answer:

The probability that he ends up with a full house is 0.0083.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and one 6. He discards the 3 and the 6 and is dealt two more cards.

We have to find the probability that he ends up with a full house (3 cards of one kind, 2 cards of another kind).

We know that gambler will end up with a full house in two different ways (knowing that he has given two more cards);

  • If he is given with two kings.
  • If he is given one king and one ace.

Only in these two situations, he will end up with a full house.

Now, there are three kings and two aces left which means at the time of drawing cards from the deck, the available cards will be 47.

So, the ways in which we can draw two kings from available three kings is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_2 }{^{47}C_2}   {∵ one king is already there}

              =  \frac{3!}{2! \times 1!}\times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}           {∵ ^{n}C_r = \frac{n!}{r! \times (n-r)!} }

              =  \frac{3}{1081}  =  0.0028

Similarly, the ways in which one king and one ace can be drawn from available 3 kings and 2 aces is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_1 \times ^{2}C_1 }{^{47}C_2}

                                                                   =  \frac{3!}{1! \times 2!}\times \frac{2!}{1! \times 1!} \times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}

                                                                   =  \frac{6}{1081}  =  0.0055

Now, probability that he ends up with a full house = \frac{3}{1081} + \frac{6}{1081}

                                                                                    =  \frac{9}{1081} = <u>0.0083</u>.

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