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3 years ago

2inch 1inch=265 feet

Mathematics

2 answers:

Bogdan [553]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

2 inches=530

Step-by-step explanation:

Please give me brainliest. Have a good day. :)

Alexxandr [17]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

24 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Since 1 inch is 12 feet we can tell that 2 inches is basically doing 12*12. Which would be 24 so:

2 inches is 24 feet

Hope this answers your question! Have a great day/night!

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Compute $14A6_{12} - 5B9_{12}$. Give your answer as a base $12$ integer.

avanturin [10]

Answer:

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3 years ago

Put them in order smallest to largest:<br> 1.32,1.23,1.03,3.21,3.12

dlinn [17]

Answer:

1.03, 1.23, 1.32 3.12, 3.21

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3 years ago

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Calculate s f(x, y, z) ds for the given surface and function. g(r, θ) = (r cos θ, r sin θ, θ), 0 ≤ r ≤ 4, 0 ≤ θ ≤ 2π; f(x, y, z)

Triss [41]

$g(r,\theta)=(r\cos\theta,r\sin\theta,\theta)\implies\begin{cases}g_r=(\cos\theta,\sin\theta,0)\\g_\theta=(-r\sin\theta,r\cos\theta,1)\end{cases}$

The surface element is

$\mathrm dS=\|g_r\times g_\theta\|\,\mathrm dr\,\mathrm d\theta=\sqrt{1+r^2}\,\mathrm dr\,\mathrm d\theta$

and the integral is

$\displaystyle\iint_Sx^2+y^2\,\mathrm dS=\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^4((r\cos\theta)^2+(r\sin\theta)^2)\sqrt{1+r^2}\,\mathrm dr\,\mathrm d\theta$

$=\displaystyle2\pi\int_0^4r^2\sqrt{1+r^2}\,\mathrm dr=\frac\pi4(132\sqrt{17}-\sinh^{-1}4)$

###

To compute the last integral, you can integrate by parts:

$u=r\implies\mathrm du=\mathrm dr$

$\mathrm dv=r\sqrt{1+r^2}\,\mathrm dr\implies v=\dfrac13(1+r^2)^{3/2}$

$\displaystyle\int_0^4r^2\sqrt{1+r^2}\,\mathrm dr=\frac r3(1+r^2)^{3/2}\bigg|_0^4-\frac13\int_0^4(1+r^2)^{3/2}\,\mathrm dr$

For this integral, consider a substitution of

$r=\sinh s\implies\mathrm dr=\cosh s\,\mathrm ds$

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$\displaystyle=\int_0^{\sinh^{-1}4}\cosh^4s\,\mathrm ds$

$=\displaystyle\frac18\int_0^{\sinh^{-1}4}(3+4\cosh2s+\cosh4s)\,\mathrm ds$

and the result above follows.

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3 years ago

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Kazeer [188]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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galben [10]

Answer:

Prove that KL is equal to c by Pythagorean Theorem.

Step-by-step explanation:

In the two triangles triangle KLM is a right triangle with sides a and b as the two legs of the right triangle .We can apply Pythagorean Theorem to find KL.

In triangle KGF two sides are a and b .If we prove KL=EF then Pythagorean Theorem will be true for triangle KGF and hence we can prove triangle KGF to be a right triangle.

The correct option to prove triangle KGF to be a right triangle is to Prove that KL is equal to c by Pythagorean Theorem.

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4 years ago

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