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Answer:
C. availability.
Explanation:
The availability bias and misinterpretation is the result of increased frequency and omnipresence of information that does not reflect its importance or correctness.
Here, Jill is clouded by how much car deaths are propagated in the media, so she fails to realize the correct answer, despite the fact that stomach cancer could seem rational in her mind.
Answer:
$8.93
Explanation:
The payment made to the stockholders is known as dividend.
Price of the stock can be determined by calculating the present value of all future expected dividends using cost of capital.
In this question $1.25 per share dividend is paid and rate of return / cost of capital is 14%, so price of stock will be calculated as follow.
Price of the share = Dividend / Cost of Capital = $8.93
Price of the share = $1.25 / 14% = $8.93
Answer:
B. The value of a perpetuity is equal to the sum of the present value of its expected future cash flows.
C. The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.
Explanation:
A Perpetuity is a financial instrument that pays the holder forever or in perpetuity. For example, a bank paying you $800 per year for ever because you invested $40,000.
There are certain characteristics
Option B
The Perpetuity like most financial Securities has its value based on the underlying cashflows that it can accumulate. This means that it's value is based on the present value of it's future cashflow so the other the cash payments, the higher the present value.
Option C.
As the discounted cashflows in the nearer future will be discounted less by the discount rate as opposed to the cash flows further in future, the cashflows nearer to the present in time will contribute more to the Perpetuity than the cashflows further in time.
For example using that first example, $800 per year at a rate of 5% will be discounted to $762 in the first year but in year 10 will be discounted to $491.
<span> Manufacturing overhead describes the difference between manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process and manufacturing overhead cost actually incurred during a period.</span>
Over-applied manufacturing overhead would result if the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is more than the manufacturing overhead cost actually incurred during a period. So, in over-applied overhead the applied overhead is bigger than the actual overhead.
