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frez [133]
3 years ago
10

When the dominant and recessive traits are known, why is it not necessary to use the term homozygous when referring to the genot

ype of an individual with a recessive phenotype?
Biology
1 answer:
notsponge [240]3 years ago
8 0
Because it's implied, recessive phenotypes have to be homozygous otherwise the recessive allele does not express as phenotype.
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In humans, sickle-cell anemia is an example of co-dominance, when considered at the molecular level. People who are homozygous d
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

<em>Yes, 50% homozygous vs 50% heterozygous</em>

Explanation:

Let dominant sickle cell allele be represented by an allele A while the recessive form be represented by S.

A person that is homozygous dominant for the trait will be AA genotype.

A person that is heterozygous for the trait will be AS genotype.

A cross between the homozygous dominant and heterozygous will be:

                              AA       x       AS

The F1 offspring will be AA, AA, AS, and AS (See the Punnet's square result)

Recall that: AA produce all normal-shaped hemoglobin molecules. Hence, 50% of the offspring will produce all normal-shaped hemoglobin.

Also, the ratio of homozygous to heterozygous offspring is 1:1, equivalent to 50% homozygous vs 50% heterozygous.

Therefore, considering the questions;

<em>Will any of their children produce only abnormal hemoglobin? </em>The answer is yes.

<em>What percentage of their offspring will be homozygous versus heterozygous? </em>The answer is 50% versus 50%

5 0
3 years ago
I do not understand this very well. May someone help me please?
dmitriy555 [2]

Explanation:

Basically, what you need to do is use a term for each one of the circles so it is even and if you look at the explanation(above or below it) it will match the definition of the term you provided. I'm guessing tho.

3 0
3 years ago
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