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frez [133]
3 years ago
10

When the dominant and recessive traits are known, why is it not necessary to use the term homozygous when referring to the genot

ype of an individual with a recessive phenotype?
Biology
1 answer:
notsponge [240]3 years ago
8 0
Because it's implied, recessive phenotypes have to be homozygous otherwise the recessive allele does not express as phenotype.
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