Explanation:
The formula to compute the current ratio is shown below:
Current ratio = Total Current assets ÷ total current liabilities
where,
Total current assets = $4,315 million
And, the total current liabilities is $2,453 million
So, the current ratio is
= $4,315 million ÷ $2,453 million
= 1.76 times
Since the current ratio is greater than the 1.76 times that reflects that company have a liquidity position and it is able to pay its short term obligations
Answer:
a. under applied.
Explanation:
For computing, whether it is under applied or over applied first, we have to compute the predetermined overhead rate. The formula is shown below:
Predetermined overhead rate = (Total estimated manufacturing overhead) ÷ (estimated direct labor-hours)
Now we have to find the applied overhead which equal to
= Actual direct labor-hours × predetermined overhead rate
So, the ending overhead equals to
= Actual manufacturing overhead - applied overhead
= under-applied
If actual overhead is more than the applied overhead
Answer: hello the video related to your question hence I will provide a general answer based on the scope of the question.
answer :
Socialism
Explanation:
The Chinese economic model since the early 1980s is commonly referred to as Socialism with Chinese characteristics
Socialism with Chinese Characteristics is a set of political theories been adapted by the Chinese to fit in into the Chinese circumstance and around this period ( early 1980s ) i.e. Boluan Fanzheng period
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "A. Company A makes bold moves and grows rapidly." <span> The company that would be most risky to invest in is that </span><span>A. Company A makes bold moves and grows rapidly.</span>
Answer:
b) internal rate of return will exceed its required rate of return.
Explanation:
The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which the NPV = 0. If the NPV is positive when calculated using the project's discount rate, then the IRR is going to be higher than the discount rate.
Option A is wrong because the profitability index (PI) of a project is calculated by dividing the present value of its cash flows by its cost. If the NPV is positive, it means that the present value of its cash flows will be greater than the costs, so the pI will be more than 1.
Option C is wrong because if the costs exceed the benefits, then the NPV will be negative.
Option D is wrong because that would mean that the NPV is negative.
Option E is something made up that doesn't make any sense.