Im not sure what you mean by that? be specific please and i will be sure to help ;)
Answer:
(d)$105,000.
Explanation:
Since the book value is more than the generated future cash flows so book value cannot be recovered. In this case, the generated future cash flows are ignored
In this scenario, we compare the values between book value and the fair value of machinery, the difference would be the loss on impairment of the asset
In mathematically,
= Book value of machinery - fair value of machinery
= $520,000 - $415,000
= $105,000
5% of 2265$ is 113,25$
Because 5% is 5/100 so 5 x 2265$ = 11325$
11325$ : 100 = 113,25$
Second year cost is the first year’s plus 5% so
2265$ + 113,25$ = 2378,25$ (second year cost)
Answer:
$50.67 per share
Explanation:
using the discounted cash flow model, we can determine Arras's total value:
CF₀ = $7.6
CF₁ = $7.98
CF₂ = $8.379
CF₃ = $8.79795
CF₄ = $9.2378475
CF₅ = $9.699739875
CF₆ = $9.893734673
we must first find the terminal value at year 5 = $9.893734673 / (7% - 2%) = $197.874694
now we can discount the future cash flows:
firm's value = $7.98/1.07 + $8.379/1.07² + $8.79795/1.07³ + $9.2378475/1.07⁴ + $9.699739875/1.07⁵ + $197.874694/1.07⁵ = $7.458 + $7.319 + $7.182 + $7.048 + $6.916 + $141.081 = $177.004 million
the shareholders' share of the firm's value = $177.004 million - $25 million = $152.004 million
price per share = $152.004 million / 3 million shares = $50.668 ≈ $50.67 per share