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Luda [366]
3 years ago
11

HELP ME ANSWER THIS PLEASE!!!!! WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST

Mathematics
2 answers:
Burka [1]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

5/24

Step-by-step explanation:

5 white

3 black

1 red

total number of pairs of socks: 5 + 3 + 1 = 9

On Monday there are 9 pairs. 3 pairs are black.

On Tuesday, one pair of black socks is already taken, so there are now 8 pairs of socks. 5 of those are white.

p(black on Mon. & white on Tue.) = 3/9 * 5/8 = 1/3 * 5/8 = 5/24

Alex777 [14]3 years ago
5 0
Black socks on monday - 3/9 or .33%.
white socks on tuesday - 5/9 or .55%

Explanation: Probability of black socks on Monday:
Total pair of socks: 1 + 3 + 5 = 9
Number of black socks on Monday: 3
3/9 = 1/3 (or divide to get a percentage)

Probability of white socks on Tuesday:
Total pair of socks: 9
Number of white socks on Tuesday: 5
5/9
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Find the midpoint of PQ<br><br> P(4 1/3, 3 1/6), Q(-2 1/5, 3 2/3)
Paha777 [63]

Answer:

(1\frac{1}{15},3\frac{5}{12})

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the midpoint, you must average the x's then average the y's.

So the x's are 4 \frac{1}{3} and -2\frac{1}{5}.

The y's are 3\frac{1}{6} and 3\frac{2}{3}.

To find an average of a data with 2 elements you must add the two elements then take that sum and divide it by 2.

So this is what we will do with the x's then the y's.

So first x:

\frac{4\frac{1}{3}+-2\frac{1}{5}}{2}

Write as improper fractions:

\frac{\frac{13}{3}+\frac{-11}{5}}{2}

Division by 2 is the same as multiplying by 1/2:

\frac{13}{6}+\frac{-11}{10}

The least common multiple of 6 and 10 is 30.  We will multiply first fraction by 5/5 and 3/3 for the second so we can have the same denominator.

\frac{65}{30}+\frac{-33}{30}

Now that the bottoms are the same we can write as one fraction:

\frac{65+-33}{30}

Simplify:

\frac{32}{30}

If you want the answer as a mix fraction like your question began as we can do that by first figuring out how many 30's are in 32 and what is the remainder of that division.

There is one 30 and 32 and so 32-30=2 is the remainder.

1\frac{2}{30}

Reduce by dividing top and bottom by 2:

1\frac{1}{15}

Now for y:

\frac{3\frac{1}{6}+3\frac{2}{3}}{2}

Write the mix fractions as improper fractions:

\frac{\frac{19}{6}+\frac{11}{3}}{2}

Dividing by 2 is the same as multiplying by 1/2:

\frac{19}{12}+\frac{11}{6}

The least common multiple of 12 and 6 is 12 so I'm going to multiply the second fraction by 2/2 so the denominators will be the same:

\frac{19}{12}+\frac{22}{12}

Since the denominators are the same we can write as a single fraction:

\frac{41}{12}

How many 12's are in 41? 3 and so the remainder is 41-3(12)=41-36=5.

3\frac{5}{12}

So the midpoint is:

(1\frac{1}{15},3\frac{5}{12}).

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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ivann1987 [24]

Answer: i)169y^3z^3

ii) 225a^3b^3

iii) 145x^2y^2

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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Evaluate 3x2 - 1 when x = 2.
Shalnov [3]

Answer:C or 11

Step-by-step explanation:

3x²-1

First you insert x... which is 2

3(2)²-1

then you square the 2. (multiply it by itself)

3(4)-1

Then you multiply 3 by 4 to get 12

12-1

And then you subtract for your answer

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4 0
3 years ago
What is the domain of y = cotx?
Brrunno [24]
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8 0
3 years ago
Suppose a family has three children of different ages. We assume that all combinations of boys and girls are equally likely. (a)
Ivan

Answer:

a) There are 8 possible combinations and each probability is 1/8.

b) The probability that it is a boy given that there are two girls is 3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

a) The sample space is given by:

BBB (3 boys)

BBG (Boy, boy, girl)

BGB (Boy, girl, boy)

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GBB (girl, boy, boy)

GBG (girl, boy, girl)

GGB (girl, girl, boy)

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The probability of each combination is the same:

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2) There are three possible combinations in which there are 2 girls and 1 boy:

BGG, GBG, GGB

So the probability is given by:

P(BGG ∪ GBG ∪ GGB)=\frac{1}{2} \frac{1}{2} \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2} \frac{1}{2} \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2} \frac{1}{2} \frac{1}{2}=\frac{3}{8}

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3 years ago
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